MCQs on Central Civil Services, Group 'A' - CCS Rules
MCQs on Central Civil Services, Group 'A' (CCS Rules, 1965)
Test your knowledge about the Central Civil Services, Group 'A' as specified in the Schedule to the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965.
Note: These questions are based on the Schedule to the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, which lists the various Group 'A' Central Civil Services.
Central Civil Services, Group 'A'
1. Which of the following services is listed as the first Group 'A' service in the Schedule?
(a) Indian Foreign Service
(b) Archaeological Service
(c) Central Secretariat Service
(d) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
Correct Answer: (b) Archaeological Service
The Schedule lists "Archaeological Service, Group 'A'" as the first service in Part I - Central Civil Services, Group 'A'.
2. Which service is responsible for botanical research and survey in India?
(a) Zoological Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Botanical Survey of India
(d) Archaeological Service
Correct Answer: (c) Botanical Survey of India
The Botanical Survey of India, Group 'A' is listed as the second service in the Schedule, responsible for botanical research and survey.
3. Which engineering service is specifically mentioned for civil engineering?
(a) Central Engineering (Electrical and Mechanical) Service
(b) Central Engineering (Civil) Service
(c) Central Power Engineering Service
(d) Central Water Engineering Service
Correct Answer: (b) Central Engineering (Civil) Service
The Schedule specifically lists "Central Engineering (Civil) Group 'A' Service" as the third service.
4. Which service deals with health matters at the central level?
(a) Central Revenues Chemical Service
(b) Central Health Service
(c) Indian Medical Service
(d) Central Medical Service
Correct Answer: (b) Central Health Service
The "Central Health Service, Group 'A'" is listed as the fifth service in the Schedule.
5. Which service has both Selection Grade and Grade I?
(a) Indian Foreign Service
(b) Central Secretariat Service
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(d) Indian Revenue Service
Correct Answer: (b) Central Secretariat Service
The Central Secretariat Service is specified with both "(a) Selection Grade" and "(b) Grade I" in the Schedule.
6. Which service is described as the "General Central Service, Group 'A'"?
(a) Service number 6
(b) Service number 8
(c) Service number 10
(d) Service number 12
Correct Answer: (b) Service number 8
The "General Central Service, Group 'A'" is listed as the eighth service in the Schedule.
7. Which survey service is listed for geological studies?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Botanical Survey of India
(d) Zoological Survey of India
Correct Answer: (b) Geological Survey of India
The "Geological Survey of India, Group 'A'" is listed as the ninth service in the Schedule.
8. Which service deals with audit and accounts functions?
(a) Indian Revenue Service
(b) Indian Defence Accounts Service
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Both "Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group 'A'" (service 10) and "Indian Defence Accounts Service" (service 11) deal with audit and accounts functions.
9. Which service was created for civil accounts functions?
(a) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(b) Indian Civil Accounts Service
(c) Indian Defence Accounts Service
(d) Indian Revenue Service
Correct Answer: (b) Indian Civil Accounts Service
The "Indian Civil Accounts Service" is listed as service 10-A in the Schedule, specifically for civil accounts functions.
10. Which service handles India's diplomatic relations?
(a) Indian Foreign Service, Group 'A'
(b) Indian Administrative Service
(c) Central Secretariat Service
(d) Indian Information Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Foreign Service, Group 'A'
The "Indian Foreign Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 12, which handles India's diplomatic relations.
11. Which service is responsible for meteorological studies?
(a) Indian Meteorological Service
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Survey of India
(d) Indian Statistical Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Meteorological Service
The "Indian Meteorological Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 13 in the Schedule.
12. Which service handles postal operations?
(a) Indian Postal Service
(b) Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service
(c) Telegraph Traffic Service
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
The Schedule includes "Indian Postal Service, Group 'A'" (service 14), "Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 15), and "Telegraph Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 35), all related to postal and telegraph operations.
13. How many branches does the Indian Revenue Service have according to the Schedule?
(a) 2 branches
(b) 3 branches
(c) 4 branches
(d) 5 branches
Correct Answer: (b) 3 branches
The Indian Revenue Service (service 16) has three branches: (a) Customs Branch, (b) Central Excise Branch, and (c) Income Tax Branch.
14. Which service is specifically related to salt production?
(a) Indian Revenue Service
(b) Indian Salt Service
(c) Central Revenues Chemical Service
(d) Central Trade Service
Correct Answer: (b) Indian Salt Service
The "Indian Salt Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 17 in the Schedule.
15. Which service is related to merchant navy training?
(a) Mercantile Marine Training Ship Service
(b) Indian Inspection Service
(c) Indian Supply Service
(d) Overseas Communications Service
Correct Answer: (a) Mercantile Marine Training Ship Service
The "Mercantile Marine Training Ship Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 18 in the Schedule.
16. Which service is responsible for mine safety?
(a) Directorate General of Mines Safety
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Central Engineering Service
(d) Indian Inspection Service
Correct Answer: (a) Directorate General of Mines Safety
The "Directorate General of Mines Safety, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 19 in the Schedule.
17. Which service handles overseas communications?
(a) Indian Telecommunication Service
(b) Overseas Communications Service
(c) Telegraph Traffic Service
(d) Indian Broadcasting Service
Correct Answer: (b) Overseas Communications Service
The "Overseas Communications Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 20 in the Schedule.
18. Which service is responsible for mapping and surveying?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Botanical Survey of India
(d) Zoological Survey of India
Correct Answer: (a) Survey of India
The "Survey of India, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 21 in the Schedule, responsible for mapping and surveying.
19. Which service handles telecommunications?
(a) Indian Telecommunication Service
(b) Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service
(c) Telegraph Traffic Service
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
The Schedule includes "Indian Telecommunication Service, Group 'A'" (service 22), "Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 15), and "Telegraph Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 35), all related to telecommunications.
20. Which service is dedicated to zoological studies?
(a) Zoological Survey of India
(b) Botanical Survey of India
(c) Geological Survey of India
(d) Indian Biological Service
Correct Answer: (a) Zoological Survey of India
The "Zoological Survey of India, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 23 in the Schedule.
21. Which service is specifically for frontier administration?
(a) Indian Frontier Administrative Service
(b) Indian Administrative Service
(c) Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Civil Service
(d) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Services
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Frontier Administrative Service
The "Indian Frontier Administrative Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 24 in the Schedule, with Grade I and Grade II.
22. How many grades does the Central Legal Service have?
(a) 2 grades
(b) 3 grades
(c) 4 grades
(d) 5 grades
Correct Answer: (c) 4 grades
The "Central Legal Service" (service 25) is specified with "Grades I, II, III and IV".
23. Which service is related to railway inspection?
(a) Railway Inspectorate Service
(b) Indian Railway Service
(c) Central Engineering Service
(d) Indian Transport Service
Correct Answer: (a) Railway Inspectorate Service
The "Railway Inspectorate Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 26 in the Schedule.
24. Which service includes Grades I and II for Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Civil Service only
(b) Police Service only
(c) Both Civil and Police Services
(d) Neither Civil nor Police Services
Correct Answer: (c) Both Civil and Police Services
The Schedule includes both "Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Civil Service, Grade I" (service 28) and "Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Police Service, Grade II" (service 29).
25. Which services are related to inspection and supply?
(a) Indian Inspection Service and Indian Supply Service
(b) Indian Revenue Service and Indian Audit Service
(c) Central Trade Service and Company Law Board Service
(d) Indian Statistical Service and Indian Economic Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Inspection Service and Indian Supply Service
The Schedule includes "Indian Inspection Service, Group 'A'" (service 30) and "Indian Supply Service, Group 'A'" (service 31).
26. How many grades does the Central Information Service have?
(a) 3 grades
(b) 4 grades
(c) 5 grades
(d) 6 grades
Correct Answer: (c) 5 grades
The "Central Information Service" (service 32) has five grades: (a) Selection Grade, (b) Senior Administrative Grade, (c) Junior Administrative Grade, (d) Grade I, and (e) Grade II.
27. Which services are related to statistics and economics?
(a) Indian Statistical Service and Indian Economic Service
(b) Indian Revenue Service and Indian Audit Service
(c) Central Information Service and Central Legal Service
(d) Indian Inspection Service and Indian Supply Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Statistical Service and Indian Economic Service
The Schedule includes "Indian Statistical Service" (service 33) and "Indian Economic Service" (service 34).
28. Which engineering services are specifically mentioned for water and power?
(a) Central Water Engineering Service and Central Power Engineering Service
(b) Central Engineering (Civil) Service and Central Engineering (Electrical and Mechanical) Service
(c) Indian Telecommunication Service and Indian Broadcasting Service
(d) Central Trade Service and Company Law Board Service
Correct Answer: (a) Central Water Engineering Service and Central Power Engineering Service
The Schedule includes "Central Water Engineering Service, Group 'A'" (service 36) and "Central Power Engineering Service, Group 'A'" (service 37).
29. Which service is related to company law matters?
(a) Company Law Board Service
(b) Central Legal Service
(c) Indian Revenue Service
(d) Central Trade Service
Correct Answer: (a) Company Law Board Service
The "Company Law Board Service" is listed as service number 38 in the Schedule.
30. Which service is specifically for armed forces headquarters?
MCQs on Miscellaneous Provisions (CCS Rules, 1965)
Test your knowledge about the miscellaneous provisions for Central Civil Services as per the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965. Each question is based on the actual provisions of Rules 30 to 35.
Note: These questions are based on Part IX - Miscellaneous of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
Service of Orders and Notices (Rule 30)
1. How should orders, notices and other processes be served under Rule 30?
(a) Through ordinary post only
(b) By email for faster communication
(c) In person or by registered post
(d) Through publication in official gazette
Correct Answer: (c) In person or by registered post
Rule 30 clearly states that every order, notice and other process shall be served in person on the Government servant concerned or communicated to him by registered post.
2. What is the purpose of Rule 30 regarding service of orders?
(a) To ensure speedy communication
(b) To ensure proper documentation
(c) To ensure the government servant actually receives communication
(d) To reduce paperwork
Correct Answer: (c) To ensure the government servant actually receives communication
Rule 30 ensures that important communications are either served in person (ensuring direct receipt) or through registered post (which provides proof of delivery).
3. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of service under Rule 30?
(a) Service in person
(b) Registered post
(c) Ordinary post
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: (c) Ordinary post
Rule 30 specifically mentions only two methods: service in person or by registered post. Ordinary post is not mentioned and therefore not an acceptable method.
Power to Relax Time-Limit (Rule 31)
4. What power does Rule 31 give to competent authorities?
(a) Power to waive rules completely
(b) Power to extend time limits and condone delays
(c) Power to create new rules
(d) Power to bypass procedural requirements
Correct Answer: (b) Power to extend time limits and condone delays
Rule 31 authorizes the competent authority to extend time specified in the rules for anything required to be done or condone any delay, for good and sufficient reasons.
5. Under what conditions can time limits be extended under Rule 31?
(a) For any reason whatsoever
(b) Only for medical reasons
(c) For good and sufficient reasons or if sufficient cause is shown
(d) Only with the government servant's consent
Correct Answer: (c) For good and sufficient reasons or if sufficient cause is shown
Rule 31 states that the authority may extend time "for good and sufficient reasons or if sufficient cause is shown".
6. Does Rule 31 apply to all time limits in the rules?
(a) Yes, to all time limits without exception
(b) No, it applies only to some time limits
(c) Only to time limits for appeals
(d) Save as otherwise expressly provided in these rules
Correct Answer: (d) Save as otherwise expressly provided in these rules
Rule 31 begins with "Save as otherwise expressly provided in these rules", meaning it applies except where specific rules provide otherwise.
Transitory Provisions (Rule 33)
7. What was the purpose of Rule 33 (Transitory Provisions)?
(a) To repeal all previous rules immediately
(b) To provide continuity until new schedules were published
(c) To create new classification system
(d) To establish new disciplinary authorities
Correct Answer: (b) To provide continuity until new schedules were published
Rule 33 provided that until the publication of Schedules under the 1965 Rules, the Schedules to the 1957 Rules and 1952 Rules would continue to apply, ensuring continuity.
8. Which rules' schedules were deemed to continue until new schedules were published?
(a) Only 1957 Rules
(b) Only 1952 Rules
(c) Both 1957 and 1952 Rules
(d) 1960 Amendment Rules
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1957 and 1952 Rules
Rule 33 specifically mentions that the Schedules to the Central Civil Services (CCA) Rules, 1957 and the Civilians in Defence Services (CCA) Rules, 1952 would continue to apply.
9. During the transitory period, which schedules were deemed to be the schedules referred to in the 1965 Rules?
(a) Newly created schedules
(b) Schedules of 1957 and 1952 Rules
(c) No schedules were applicable
(d) Ad-hoc schedules created by departments
Correct Answer: (b) Schedules of 1957 and 1952 Rules
Rule 33 stated that the Schedules to the 1957 and 1952 Rules "shall be deemed to be the Schedules referred to in the corresponding rules of these rules".
Repeal and Saving (Rule 34)
10. Which rules were repealed by Rule 34?
(a) Only 1957 Rules
(b) Only 1952 Rules
(c) Both 1957 and 1952 Rules
(d) All previous service rules
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1957 and 1952 Rules
Rule 34(1) explicitly states that the Central Civil Services (CCA) Rules, 1957 and the Civilians in Defence Services (CCA) Rules, 1952 are repealed.
11. What was the extent of repeal under Rule 34?
(a) Complete repeal without any savings
(b) Repeal only of inconsistent provisions
(c) Repeal of all previous rules
(d) Only procedural rules were repealed
Correct Answer: (b) Repeal only of inconsistent provisions
Rule 34(1) states that the 1957 and 1952 Rules are repealed "in so far as they are inconsistent with these rules", meaning only inconsistent provisions were repealed.
12. What happened to pending proceedings at the commencement of the 1965 Rules?
(a) They were terminated automatically
(b) They were continued under the old rules
(c) They were continued and disposed of under the 1965 Rules
(d) They had to be restarted under new rules
Correct Answer: (c) They were continued and disposed of under the 1965 Rules
Rule 34(1) proviso (b) states that pending proceedings should be continued and disposed of, as far as may be, in accordance with the provisions of the 1965 Rules.
13. What happened to rights of appeal that had accrued before commencement?
(a) They were extinguished
(b) They were preserved
(c) They had to be exercised within 30 days
(d) They were converted to revision petitions
Correct Answer: (b) They were preserved
Rule 34(2) states that nothing in these rules shall be construed as depriving any person of any right of appeal which had accrued to him under the previous rules.
14. How were appeals pending at commencement to be dealt with?
(a) Under the old rules
(b) Under the 1965 Rules
(c) As per discretion of appellate authority
(d) They were deemed withdrawn
Correct Answer: (b) Under the 1965 Rules
Rule 34(3) states that appeals pending at commencement shall be considered and orders made in accordance with the 1965 Rules.
15. What was the provision regarding period of limitation for appeals after commencement?
(a) All periods were reset to 45 days
(b) No reduction of existing limitation periods
(c) Shorter of old or new limitation period applied
(d) Only 30 days for all appeals
Correct Answer: (b) No reduction of existing limitation periods
The proviso to Rule 34(4) states that nothing in these rules shall be construed as reducing any period of limitation for any appeal or review provided by any rule in force before commencement.
16. After commencement of 1965 Rules, how were appeals against pre-commencement orders to be made?
(a) Under the old rules
(b) Under the 1965 Rules
(c) As per choice of appellant
(d) Only through special permission
Correct Answer: (b) Under the 1965 Rules
Rule 34(4) states that any appeal or application for review against orders made before commencement shall be preferred or made under the 1965 Rules.
Removal of Doubts (Rule 35)
17. How are doubts regarding interpretation of rules to be resolved?
(a) By the courts only
(b) By the disciplinary authority
(c) By reference to President or specified authority
(d) Through departmental committees
Correct Answer: (c) By reference to President or specified authority
Rule 35 states that if any doubt arises as to interpretation, the matter shall be referred to the President or such other authority as may be specified by the President.
18. Who ultimately decides questions of interpretation under Rule 35?
(a) The concerned Ministry
(b) The President or specified authority
(c) The Department of Personnel and Training
(d) The Central Administrative Tribunal
Correct Answer: (b) The President or specified authority
Rule 35 clearly states that the President or such other authority as may be specified shall decide the matter of interpretation.
19. Can the President specify other authorities to interpret rules?
(a) No, only the President can interpret
(b) Yes, by general or special order
(c) Only for specific categories of cases
(d) Only for technical interpretations
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, by general or special order
Rule 35 states that the matter shall be referred to the President "or such other authority as may be specified by the President by general or special order".
General Questions
20. What is Rule 32 in the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965?
(a) It deals with penalties
(b) It deals with appeals
(c) It has been omitted
(d) It deals with suspension
Correct Answer: (c) It has been omitted
The content provided simply states "32. Omitted", indicating that Rule 32 was originally part of the rules but has since been removed or deleted.
21. The saving clause in Rule 34 ensures that:
(a) All previous actions are invalidated
(b) Rights accrued under previous rules are protected
(c) Only future actions are valid
(d) All pending cases are dismissed
Correct Answer: (b) Rights accrued under previous rules are protected
The saving clause in Rule 34(2) specifically protects rights of appeal that had accrued under the previous rules, ensuring they are not extinguished by the new rules.
22. The transitory provisions were necessary to:
(a) Create confusion during transition
(b) Ensure smooth transition from old to new rules
(c) Immediately terminate all previous procedures
(d) Allow departments to make their own rules
Correct Answer: (b) Ensure smooth transition from old to new rules
Rule 33 provided for continuity by allowing the old schedules to remain in force until new ones were published, ensuring a smooth transition without administrative vacuum.
23. The power to condone delay under Rule 31 is an example of:
(a) Strict application of rules
(b) Administrative flexibility and discretion
(c) Judicial overreach
(d) Legislative function
Correct Answer: (b) Administrative flexibility and discretion
Rule 31 provides administrative flexibility by allowing competent authorities to use discretion in extending time limits or condoning delays for good and sufficient reasons.
24. The registered post requirement in Rule 30 serves to:
(a) Create proof of service
(b) Delay communications
(c) Increase administrative costs unnecessarily
(d) Limit access to justice
Correct Answer: (a) Create proof of service
Registered post provides documentary proof of delivery, which is important for establishing that the government servant actually received the communication, especially in disciplinary matters.
25. The repeal of previous rules in Rule 34 is:
(a) A complete repeal without any savings
(b) A repeal only of inconsistent provisions with savings
(c) Only a nominal repeal without effect
(d) Applicable only to some departments
Correct Answer: (b) A repeal only of inconsistent provisions with savings
Rule 34 repeals the previous rules only to the extent they are inconsistent with the 1965 Rules, and includes comprehensive saving clauses to protect accrued rights and pending proceedings.
26. The miscellaneous provisions in Part IX primarily serve to:
(a) Create new substantive rights
(b) Provide procedural clarifications and transitional arrangements
(c) Override all previous laws
(d) Establish new disciplinary authorities
Correct Answer: (b) Provide procedural clarifications and transitional arrangements
The miscellaneous provisions in Rules 30-35 address procedural aspects (service of documents, time limits), transitional arrangements, repeal of previous rules, and mechanism for resolving interpretation doubts.
27. The provision for removal of doubts in Rule 35 is important because:
(a) It allows courts to interpret the rules
(b) It provides a mechanism for authoritative interpretation within the administration
(c) It makes all rules subject to multiple interpretations
(d) It delegates interpretation to subordinate authorities
Correct Answer: (b) It provides a mechanism for authoritative interpretation within the administration
Rule 35 establishes a mechanism for obtaining authoritative interpretation from the President or specified authority, ensuring consistency in application of the rules across the administration.
28. The concept of "deemed to be" in Rule 33 creates:
(a) A legal fiction for continuity
(b) Confusion about applicable rules
(c) Automatic expiration of old rules
(d) New substantive rights
Correct Answer: (a) A legal fiction for continuity
The phrase "deemed to be" creates a legal fiction whereby the old schedules are treated as if they were the schedules under the new rules, ensuring continuity during transition.
29. The miscellaneous provisions demonstrate that the 1965 Rules:
(a) Were intended to completely break from past practices
(b) Were carefully designed to ensure smooth transition and continuity
(c) Created confusion about applicable procedures
(d) Only applied to new cases
Correct Answer: (b) Were carefully designed to ensure smooth transition and continuity
The comprehensive transitional arrangements, saving clauses, and continuity provisions show that the 1965 Rules were carefully designed to replace previous rules while ensuring smooth transition and protecting accrued rights.
30. The structure of Part IX shows that the rule-makers:
(a) Were concerned only with substantive provisions
(b) Paid careful attention to procedural and transitional matters
(c) Wanted to create maximum confusion
(d) Were indifferent to implementation issues
Correct Answer: (b) Paid careful attention to procedural and transitional matters
The detailed provisions for service of documents, time limits, transition, repeal with savings, and interpretation demonstrate that the rule-makers carefully considered procedural and transitional aspects to ensure proper implementation.
Test your knowledge about the appeal procedures for Central Civil Services as per the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965. Each question is based on the actual provisions of Rules 22 to 28.
Note: These questions are based on Part VII - Appeals of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
Orders Against Which Appeal Lies (Rules 22-23)
1. Against which of the following orders no appeal lies under Rule 22?
(a) Order of suspension
(b) Order made by the President
(c) Order imposing penalty
(d) Order enhancing penalty
Correct Answer: (b) Order made by the President
Rule 22(i) clearly states that no appeal shall lie against any order made by the President.
2. Which type of interlocutory orders are not appealable?
(a) Orders of suspension
(b) Orders which are steps-in-aid of final disposal
(c) Orders imposing minor penalties
(d) Orders affecting pension
Correct Answer: (b) Orders which are steps-in-aid of final disposal
Rule 22(ii) states that no appeal shall lie against any order of an interlocutory nature or of the nature of a step-in-aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceeding, other than an order of suspension.
3. Can a government servant appeal against an order passed by an inquiring authority during the course of an inquiry?
(a) Yes, always
(b) No, never
(c) Only if it affects fundamental rights
(d) Only with permission of disciplinary authority
Correct Answer: (b) No, never
Rule 22(iii) explicitly states that no appeal shall lie against any order passed by an inquiring authority in the course of an inquiry under Rule 14.
4. Which of the following orders is appealable under Rule 23?
(a) Order of suspension
(b) Order imposing any penalty
(c) Order enhancing any penalty
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Rule 23(i), (ii) and (iii) specifically state that orders of suspension, orders imposing any penalty, and orders enhancing any penalty are appealable.
5. Can an order that interprets rules to the disadvantage of a government servant be appealed?
(a) No, never
(b) Yes, under Rule 23(iv)(b)
(c) Only if it affects pension
(d) Only with President's permission
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, under Rule 23(iv)(b)
Rule 23(iv)(b) states that an order which interprets to his disadvantage the provisions of any rule or agreement is appealable.
6. Which pension-related orders are appealable?
(a) Only reduction of pension
(b) Only denial of maximum pension
(c) Both reduction and withholding of pension
(d) All pension matters are appealable
Correct Answer: (c) Both reduction and withholding of pension
Rule 23(v)(c) specifies that orders reducing or withholding the pension or denying the maximum pension admissible are appealable.
7. Does the term "Government servant" in appeal rules include those who have ceased to be in service?
(a) No, only current employees
(b) Yes, as per Explanation to Rule 23
(c) Only for pension matters
(d) Only if they retired recently
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, as per Explanation to Rule 23
The Explanation to Rule 23 clearly states that the expression 'Government servant' includes a person who has ceased to be in Government service.
8. What does the term "pension" include for appeal purposes?
(a) Only basic pension
(b) Pension and gratuity
(c) Additional pension, gratuity and other retirement benefits
(d) Only monthly pension payments
Correct Answer: (c) Additional pension, gratuity and other retirement benefits
The Explanation to Rule 23 states that the expression 'pension' includes additional pension, gratuity and any other retirement benefits.
Appellate Authority (Rule 24)
9. Who can prefer an appeal under Rule 24?
(a) Only current government servants
(b) Only those who have ceased to be in service
(c) Both current and former government servants
(d) Only those with more than 10 years service
Correct Answer: (c) Both current and former government servants
Rule 24(1) states that a Government servant, including a person who has ceased to be in Government service, may prefer an appeal.
10. Where should a Group A officer appeal when the order is made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority?
(a) To the President
(b) To the next higher authority
(c) To the appointing authority
(d) To the Central Administrative Tribunal
Correct Answer: (c) To the appointing authority
Rule 24(1)(i)(a) states that for Group A and B officers, where the order appealed against is made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority, the appeal lies to the appointing authority.
11. Where should a Group C or D employee prefer an appeal when no specific authority is specified?
(a) To the appointing authority
(b) To the authority immediately above the one that made the order
(c) To the President
(d) To the Ministry concerned
Correct Answer: (b) To the authority immediately above the one that made the order
Rule 24(1)(ii) states that for Group C and D employees, the appeal lies to the authority to which the authority making the order appealed against is immediately subordinate.
12. In case of common proceedings under Rule 18, where does the appeal lie?
(a) To the disciplinary authority itself
(b) To the authority immediately above the disciplinary authority
(c) To the President in all cases
(d) To the Central Vigilance Commission
Correct Answer: (b) To the authority immediately above the disciplinary authority
Rule 24(2)(i) states that an appeal against an order in a common proceeding shall lie to the authority to which the authority functioning as the disciplinary authority is immediately subordinate.
13. What happens if the person who made the order becomes the appellate authority?
(a) The appeal lies to that person
(b) The appeal lies to the authority above that person
(c) No appeal is possible
(d) The case is referred to President
Correct Answer: (b) The appeal lies to the authority above that person
Rule 24(2)(ii) states that where the person who made the order becomes the appellate authority, the appeal shall lie to the authority to which such person is immediately subordinate.
14. When can an appeal be made directly to the President even if not normally provided?
(a) When the penalty is for trade union activities
(b) When the employee is due to retire
(c) When the penalty is too harsh
(d) When there is procedural irregularity
Correct Answer: (a) When the penalty is for trade union activities
Rule 24(3) allows appeal to the President where penalty is imposed on a government servant in respect of his activities connected with his work as an office-bearer of an association, federation or union participating in the Joint Consultation and Compulsory Arbitration Scheme.
Procedure for Appeals (Rules 25-28)
15. What is the normal time limit for preferring an appeal?
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
Correct Answer: (b) 45 days
Rule 25 states that no appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant.
16. Can the appellate authority entertain an appeal after the expiry of the limitation period?
(a) Never
(b) Yes, if satisfied about sufficient cause
(c) Only with President's permission
(d) Only for pension matters
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, if satisfied about sufficient cause
The proviso to Rule 25 states that the appellate authority may entertain the appeal after the expiry of the said period if it is satisfied that the appellant had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal in time.
17. How should an appeal be presented?
(a) Through proper channel
(b) Directly to appellate authority with copy to authority which made order
(c) Only through registered post
(d) Through legal practitioner only
Correct Answer: (b) Directly to appellate authority with copy to authority which made order
Rule 26(2) states that the appeal shall be presented to the authority to whom the appeal lies, a copy being forwarded by the appellant to the authority which made the order appealed against.
18. What must the authority which made the order do upon receipt of appeal copy?
(a) Wait for directions from appellate authority
(b) Forward it with comments and records without delay
(c) Seek legal advice
(d) Review its own order
Correct Answer: (b) Forward it with comments and records without delay
Rule 26(3) requires the authority which made the order to forward the appeal with its comments and relevant records to the appellate authority without any avoidable delay, without waiting for any direction.
19. What should the appellate authority consider in an appeal against suspension?
(a) Whether suspension is justified
(b) Whether procedure was followed
(c) Whether penalty is adequate
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Whether suspension is justified
Rule 27(1) states that in appeal against suspension, the appellate authority shall consider whether the order of suspension is justified or not and confirm or revoke accordingly.
20. Which of the following must the appellate authority consider in appeal against penalty?
(a) Whether procedure was complied with
(b) Whether findings are warranted by evidence
(c) Whether penalty is adequate
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Rule 27(2) requires the appellate authority to consider all three aspects: procedure compliance, findings warranted by evidence, and adequacy of penalty.
21. What orders can the appellate authority pass in an appeal against penalty?
(a) Confirm the penalty
(b) Enhance, reduce or set aside the penalty
(c) Remit the case to original authority
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Rule 27(2) allows the appellate authority to pass orders confirming, enhancing, reducing, or setting aside the penalty, or remitting the case to the authority which imposed the penalty.
22. When must the Commission be consulted in appeal cases?
(a) In all appeal cases
(b) Only in major penalty cases
(c) Where such consultation is necessary
(d) Only when enhancing penalty
Correct Answer: (c) Where such consultation is necessary
The proviso to Rule 27(2) states that the Commission shall be consulted in all cases where such consultation is necessary.
23. What is required before imposing enhanced penalty when no inquiry was held earlier?
(a) Direct inquiry to be held
(b) Give opportunity of representation
(c) Consult Commission
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Direct inquiry to be held
Rule 27(2) proviso (ii) states that if enhanced penalty is proposed and no inquiry was held, the appellate authority shall itself hold such inquiry or direct that such inquiry be held.
24. What opportunity must be given before imposing enhanced penalty when inquiry was already held?
(a) Fresh inquiry
(b) Opportunity of representation against proposed penalty
(c) Personal hearing
(d) Legal assistance
Correct Answer: (b) Opportunity of representation against proposed penalty
Rule 27(2) proviso (iii) requires that the appellant be given a reasonable opportunity of making a representation against the proposed enhanced penalty.
25. Who is responsible for implementing appellate authority's orders?
(a) The appellate authority itself
(b) The authority which made the original order
(c) The appointing authority
(d) The President
Correct Answer: (b) The authority which made the original order
Rule 28 clearly states that the authority which made the order appealed against shall give effect to the orders passed by the appellate authority.
Additional Questions
26. Can an appeal contain disrespectful or improper language?
(a) Yes, if facts justify it
(b) No, as per Rule 26(2)
(c) Only in extreme cases
(d) Only if allegations are serious
Correct Answer: (b) No, as per Rule 26(2)
Rule 26(2) explicitly states that the appeal shall not contain any disrespectful or improper language.
27. Should the appeal be complete in itself?
(a) No, additional documents can be submitted later
(b) Yes, as required by Rule 26(2)
(c) Only in major penalty cases
(d) Only if specifically asked
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, as required by Rule 26(2)
Rule 26(2) requires that the appeal shall be complete in itself.
28. What must the appeal contain according to Rule 26(2)?
(a) Only the request for relief
(b) All material statements and arguments
(c) Only new evidence
(d) Only procedural objections
Correct Answer: (b) All material statements and arguments
Rule 26(2) states that the appeal shall contain all material statements and arguments on which the appellant relies.
29. How should multiple appellants prefer appeals?
(a) Through a joint appeal
(b) Separately and in their own names
(c) Through their association
(d) Through legal representative
Correct Answer: (b) Separately and in their own names
Rule 26(1) requires that every person preferring an appeal shall do so separately and in his own name.
30. In appeals against orders other than suspension or penalty, what should the appellate authority consider?
(a) Only legal aspects
(b) Only procedural compliance
(c) All circumstances of the case
(d) Only the appellant's representation
Correct Answer: (c) All circumstances of the case
Rule 27(3) states that in appeal against any other order specified in rule 23, the appellate authority shall consider all the circumstances of the case.
