MCQs on Central Civil Services, Group 'A' - CCS Rules
MCQs on Central Civil Services, Group 'A' (CCS Rules, 1965)
Test your knowledge about the Central Civil Services, Group 'A' as specified in the Schedule to the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965.
Note: These questions are based on the Schedule to the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, which lists the various Group 'A' Central Civil Services.
Central Civil Services, Group 'A'
1. Which of the following services is listed as the first Group 'A' service in the Schedule?
(a) Indian Foreign Service
(b) Archaeological Service
(c) Central Secretariat Service
(d) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
Correct Answer: (b) Archaeological Service
The Schedule lists "Archaeological Service, Group 'A'" as the first service in Part I - Central Civil Services, Group 'A'.
2. Which service is responsible for botanical research and survey in India?
(a) Zoological Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Botanical Survey of India
(d) Archaeological Service
Correct Answer: (c) Botanical Survey of India
The Botanical Survey of India, Group 'A' is listed as the second service in the Schedule, responsible for botanical research and survey.
3. Which engineering service is specifically mentioned for civil engineering?
(a) Central Engineering (Electrical and Mechanical) Service
(b) Central Engineering (Civil) Service
(c) Central Power Engineering Service
(d) Central Water Engineering Service
Correct Answer: (b) Central Engineering (Civil) Service
The Schedule specifically lists "Central Engineering (Civil) Group 'A' Service" as the third service.
4. Which service deals with health matters at the central level?
(a) Central Revenues Chemical Service
(b) Central Health Service
(c) Indian Medical Service
(d) Central Medical Service
Correct Answer: (b) Central Health Service
The "Central Health Service, Group 'A'" is listed as the fifth service in the Schedule.
5. Which service has both Selection Grade and Grade I?
(a) Indian Foreign Service
(b) Central Secretariat Service
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(d) Indian Revenue Service
Correct Answer: (b) Central Secretariat Service
The Central Secretariat Service is specified with both "(a) Selection Grade" and "(b) Grade I" in the Schedule.
6. Which service is described as the "General Central Service, Group 'A'"?
(a) Service number 6
(b) Service number 8
(c) Service number 10
(d) Service number 12
Correct Answer: (b) Service number 8
The "General Central Service, Group 'A'" is listed as the eighth service in the Schedule.
7. Which survey service is listed for geological studies?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Botanical Survey of India
(d) Zoological Survey of India
Correct Answer: (b) Geological Survey of India
The "Geological Survey of India, Group 'A'" is listed as the ninth service in the Schedule.
8. Which service deals with audit and accounts functions?
(a) Indian Revenue Service
(b) Indian Defence Accounts Service
(c) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Both "Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group 'A'" (service 10) and "Indian Defence Accounts Service" (service 11) deal with audit and accounts functions.
9. Which service was created for civil accounts functions?
(a) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(b) Indian Civil Accounts Service
(c) Indian Defence Accounts Service
(d) Indian Revenue Service
Correct Answer: (b) Indian Civil Accounts Service
The "Indian Civil Accounts Service" is listed as service 10-A in the Schedule, specifically for civil accounts functions.
10. Which service handles India's diplomatic relations?
(a) Indian Foreign Service, Group 'A'
(b) Indian Administrative Service
(c) Central Secretariat Service
(d) Indian Information Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Foreign Service, Group 'A'
The "Indian Foreign Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 12, which handles India's diplomatic relations.
11. Which service is responsible for meteorological studies?
(a) Indian Meteorological Service
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Survey of India
(d) Indian Statistical Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Meteorological Service
The "Indian Meteorological Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 13 in the Schedule.
12. Which service handles postal operations?
(a) Indian Postal Service
(b) Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service
(c) Telegraph Traffic Service
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
The Schedule includes "Indian Postal Service, Group 'A'" (service 14), "Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 15), and "Telegraph Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 35), all related to postal and telegraph operations.
13. How many branches does the Indian Revenue Service have according to the Schedule?
(a) 2 branches
(b) 3 branches
(c) 4 branches
(d) 5 branches
Correct Answer: (b) 3 branches
The Indian Revenue Service (service 16) has three branches: (a) Customs Branch, (b) Central Excise Branch, and (c) Income Tax Branch.
14. Which service is specifically related to salt production?
(a) Indian Revenue Service
(b) Indian Salt Service
(c) Central Revenues Chemical Service
(d) Central Trade Service
Correct Answer: (b) Indian Salt Service
The "Indian Salt Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 17 in the Schedule.
15. Which service is related to merchant navy training?
(a) Mercantile Marine Training Ship Service
(b) Indian Inspection Service
(c) Indian Supply Service
(d) Overseas Communications Service
Correct Answer: (a) Mercantile Marine Training Ship Service
The "Mercantile Marine Training Ship Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 18 in the Schedule.
16. Which service is responsible for mine safety?
(a) Directorate General of Mines Safety
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Central Engineering Service
(d) Indian Inspection Service
Correct Answer: (a) Directorate General of Mines Safety
The "Directorate General of Mines Safety, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 19 in the Schedule.
17. Which service handles overseas communications?
(a) Indian Telecommunication Service
(b) Overseas Communications Service
(c) Telegraph Traffic Service
(d) Indian Broadcasting Service
Correct Answer: (b) Overseas Communications Service
The "Overseas Communications Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 20 in the Schedule.
18. Which service is responsible for mapping and surveying?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Botanical Survey of India
(d) Zoological Survey of India
Correct Answer: (a) Survey of India
The "Survey of India, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 21 in the Schedule, responsible for mapping and surveying.
19. Which service handles telecommunications?
(a) Indian Telecommunication Service
(b) Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service
(c) Telegraph Traffic Service
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
The Schedule includes "Indian Telecommunication Service, Group 'A'" (service 22), "Indian Posts and Telegraphs Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 15), and "Telegraph Traffic Service, Group 'A'" (service 35), all related to telecommunications.
20. Which service is dedicated to zoological studies?
(a) Zoological Survey of India
(b) Botanical Survey of India
(c) Geological Survey of India
(d) Indian Biological Service
Correct Answer: (a) Zoological Survey of India
The "Zoological Survey of India, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 23 in the Schedule.
21. Which service is specifically for frontier administration?
(a) Indian Frontier Administrative Service
(b) Indian Administrative Service
(c) Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Civil Service
(d) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Services
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Frontier Administrative Service
The "Indian Frontier Administrative Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 24 in the Schedule, with Grade I and Grade II.
22. How many grades does the Central Legal Service have?
(a) 2 grades
(b) 3 grades
(c) 4 grades
(d) 5 grades
Correct Answer: (c) 4 grades
The "Central Legal Service" (service 25) is specified with "Grades I, II, III and IV".
23. Which service is related to railway inspection?
(a) Railway Inspectorate Service
(b) Indian Railway Service
(c) Central Engineering Service
(d) Indian Transport Service
Correct Answer: (a) Railway Inspectorate Service
The "Railway Inspectorate Service, Group 'A'" is listed as service number 26 in the Schedule.
24. Which service includes Grades I and II for Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Civil Service only
(b) Police Service only
(c) Both Civil and Police Services
(d) Neither Civil nor Police Services
Correct Answer: (c) Both Civil and Police Services
The Schedule includes both "Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Civil Service, Grade I" (service 28) and "Delhi and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Police Service, Grade II" (service 29).
25. Which services are related to inspection and supply?
(a) Indian Inspection Service and Indian Supply Service
(b) Indian Revenue Service and Indian Audit Service
(c) Central Trade Service and Company Law Board Service
(d) Indian Statistical Service and Indian Economic Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Inspection Service and Indian Supply Service
The Schedule includes "Indian Inspection Service, Group 'A'" (service 30) and "Indian Supply Service, Group 'A'" (service 31).
26. How many grades does the Central Information Service have?
(a) 3 grades
(b) 4 grades
(c) 5 grades
(d) 6 grades
Correct Answer: (c) 5 grades
The "Central Information Service" (service 32) has five grades: (a) Selection Grade, (b) Senior Administrative Grade, (c) Junior Administrative Grade, (d) Grade I, and (e) Grade II.
27. Which services are related to statistics and economics?
(a) Indian Statistical Service and Indian Economic Service
(b) Indian Revenue Service and Indian Audit Service
(c) Central Information Service and Central Legal Service
(d) Indian Inspection Service and Indian Supply Service
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Statistical Service and Indian Economic Service
The Schedule includes "Indian Statistical Service" (service 33) and "Indian Economic Service" (service 34).
28. Which engineering services are specifically mentioned for water and power?
(a) Central Water Engineering Service and Central Power Engineering Service
(b) Central Engineering (Civil) Service and Central Engineering (Electrical and Mechanical) Service
(c) Indian Telecommunication Service and Indian Broadcasting Service
(d) Central Trade Service and Company Law Board Service
Correct Answer: (a) Central Water Engineering Service and Central Power Engineering Service
The Schedule includes "Central Water Engineering Service, Group 'A'" (service 36) and "Central Power Engineering Service, Group 'A'" (service 37).
29. Which service is related to company law matters?
(a) Company Law Board Service
(b) Central Legal Service
(c) Indian Revenue Service
(d) Central Trade Service
Correct Answer: (a) Company Law Board Service
The "Company Law Board Service" is listed as service number 38 in the Schedule.
30. Which service is specifically for armed forces headquarters?
Test your knowledge about the appeal procedures for Central Civil Services as per the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965. Each question is based on the actual provisions of Rules 22 to 28.
Note: These questions are based on Part VII - Appeals of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
Orders Against Which Appeal Lies (Rules 22-23)
1. Against which of the following orders no appeal lies under Rule 22?
(a) Order of suspension
(b) Order made by the President
(c) Order imposing penalty
(d) Order enhancing penalty
Correct Answer: (b) Order made by the President
Rule 22(i) clearly states that no appeal shall lie against any order made by the President.
2. Which type of interlocutory orders are not appealable?
(a) Orders of suspension
(b) Orders which are steps-in-aid of final disposal
(c) Orders imposing minor penalties
(d) Orders affecting pension
Correct Answer: (b) Orders which are steps-in-aid of final disposal
Rule 22(ii) states that no appeal shall lie against any order of an interlocutory nature or of the nature of a step-in-aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceeding, other than an order of suspension.
3. Can a government servant appeal against an order passed by an inquiring authority during the course of an inquiry?
(a) Yes, always
(b) No, never
(c) Only if it affects fundamental rights
(d) Only with permission of disciplinary authority
Correct Answer: (b) No, never
Rule 22(iii) explicitly states that no appeal shall lie against any order passed by an inquiring authority in the course of an inquiry under Rule 14.
4. Which of the following orders is appealable under Rule 23?
(a) Order of suspension
(b) Order imposing any penalty
(c) Order enhancing any penalty
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Rule 23(i), (ii) and (iii) specifically state that orders of suspension, orders imposing any penalty, and orders enhancing any penalty are appealable.
5. Can an order that interprets rules to the disadvantage of a government servant be appealed?
(a) No, never
(b) Yes, under Rule 23(iv)(b)
(c) Only if it affects pension
(d) Only with President's permission
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, under Rule 23(iv)(b)
Rule 23(iv)(b) states that an order which interprets to his disadvantage the provisions of any rule or agreement is appealable.
6. Which pension-related orders are appealable?
(a) Only reduction of pension
(b) Only denial of maximum pension
(c) Both reduction and withholding of pension
(d) All pension matters are appealable
Correct Answer: (c) Both reduction and withholding of pension
Rule 23(v)(c) specifies that orders reducing or withholding the pension or denying the maximum pension admissible are appealable.
7. Does the term "Government servant" in appeal rules include those who have ceased to be in service?
(a) No, only current employees
(b) Yes, as per Explanation to Rule 23
(c) Only for pension matters
(d) Only if they retired recently
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, as per Explanation to Rule 23
The Explanation to Rule 23 clearly states that the expression 'Government servant' includes a person who has ceased to be in Government service.
8. What does the term "pension" include for appeal purposes?
(a) Only basic pension
(b) Pension and gratuity
(c) Additional pension, gratuity and other retirement benefits
(d) Only monthly pension payments
Correct Answer: (c) Additional pension, gratuity and other retirement benefits
The Explanation to Rule 23 states that the expression 'pension' includes additional pension, gratuity and any other retirement benefits.
Appellate Authority (Rule 24)
9. Who can prefer an appeal under Rule 24?
(a) Only current government servants
(b) Only those who have ceased to be in service
(c) Both current and former government servants
(d) Only those with more than 10 years service
Correct Answer: (c) Both current and former government servants
Rule 24(1) states that a Government servant, including a person who has ceased to be in Government service, may prefer an appeal.
10. Where should a Group A officer appeal when the order is made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority?
(a) To the President
(b) To the next higher authority
(c) To the appointing authority
(d) To the Central Administrative Tribunal
Correct Answer: (c) To the appointing authority
Rule 24(1)(i)(a) states that for Group A and B officers, where the order appealed against is made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority, the appeal lies to the appointing authority.
11. Where should a Group C or D employee prefer an appeal when no specific authority is specified?
(a) To the appointing authority
(b) To the authority immediately above the one that made the order
(c) To the President
(d) To the Ministry concerned
Correct Answer: (b) To the authority immediately above the one that made the order
Rule 24(1)(ii) states that for Group C and D employees, the appeal lies to the authority to which the authority making the order appealed against is immediately subordinate.
12. In case of common proceedings under Rule 18, where does the appeal lie?
(a) To the disciplinary authority itself
(b) To the authority immediately above the disciplinary authority
(c) To the President in all cases
(d) To the Central Vigilance Commission
Correct Answer: (b) To the authority immediately above the disciplinary authority
Rule 24(2)(i) states that an appeal against an order in a common proceeding shall lie to the authority to which the authority functioning as the disciplinary authority is immediately subordinate.
13. What happens if the person who made the order becomes the appellate authority?
(a) The appeal lies to that person
(b) The appeal lies to the authority above that person
(c) No appeal is possible
(d) The case is referred to President
Correct Answer: (b) The appeal lies to the authority above that person
Rule 24(2)(ii) states that where the person who made the order becomes the appellate authority, the appeal shall lie to the authority to which such person is immediately subordinate.
14. When can an appeal be made directly to the President even if not normally provided?
(a) When the penalty is for trade union activities
(b) When the employee is due to retire
(c) When the penalty is too harsh
(d) When there is procedural irregularity
Correct Answer: (a) When the penalty is for trade union activities
Rule 24(3) allows appeal to the President where penalty is imposed on a government servant in respect of his activities connected with his work as an office-bearer of an association, federation or union participating in the Joint Consultation and Compulsory Arbitration Scheme.
Procedure for Appeals (Rules 25-28)
15. What is the normal time limit for preferring an appeal?
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
Correct Answer: (b) 45 days
Rule 25 states that no appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant.
16. Can the appellate authority entertain an appeal after the expiry of the limitation period?
(a) Never
(b) Yes, if satisfied about sufficient cause
(c) Only with President's permission
(d) Only for pension matters
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, if satisfied about sufficient cause
The proviso to Rule 25 states that the appellate authority may entertain the appeal after the expiry of the said period if it is satisfied that the appellant had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal in time.
17. How should an appeal be presented?
(a) Through proper channel
(b) Directly to appellate authority with copy to authority which made order
(c) Only through registered post
(d) Through legal practitioner only
Correct Answer: (b) Directly to appellate authority with copy to authority which made order
Rule 26(2) states that the appeal shall be presented to the authority to whom the appeal lies, a copy being forwarded by the appellant to the authority which made the order appealed against.
18. What must the authority which made the order do upon receipt of appeal copy?
(a) Wait for directions from appellate authority
(b) Forward it with comments and records without delay
(c) Seek legal advice
(d) Review its own order
Correct Answer: (b) Forward it with comments and records without delay
Rule 26(3) requires the authority which made the order to forward the appeal with its comments and relevant records to the appellate authority without any avoidable delay, without waiting for any direction.
19. What should the appellate authority consider in an appeal against suspension?
(a) Whether suspension is justified
(b) Whether procedure was followed
(c) Whether penalty is adequate
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Whether suspension is justified
Rule 27(1) states that in appeal against suspension, the appellate authority shall consider whether the order of suspension is justified or not and confirm or revoke accordingly.
20. Which of the following must the appellate authority consider in appeal against penalty?
(a) Whether procedure was complied with
(b) Whether findings are warranted by evidence
(c) Whether penalty is adequate
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Rule 27(2) requires the appellate authority to consider all three aspects: procedure compliance, findings warranted by evidence, and adequacy of penalty.
21. What orders can the appellate authority pass in an appeal against penalty?
(a) Confirm the penalty
(b) Enhance, reduce or set aside the penalty
(c) Remit the case to original authority
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (d) All of the above
Rule 27(2) allows the appellate authority to pass orders confirming, enhancing, reducing, or setting aside the penalty, or remitting the case to the authority which imposed the penalty.
22. When must the Commission be consulted in appeal cases?
(a) In all appeal cases
(b) Only in major penalty cases
(c) Where such consultation is necessary
(d) Only when enhancing penalty
Correct Answer: (c) Where such consultation is necessary
The proviso to Rule 27(2) states that the Commission shall be consulted in all cases where such consultation is necessary.
23. What is required before imposing enhanced penalty when no inquiry was held earlier?
(a) Direct inquiry to be held
(b) Give opportunity of representation
(c) Consult Commission
(d) All of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Direct inquiry to be held
Rule 27(2) proviso (ii) states that if enhanced penalty is proposed and no inquiry was held, the appellate authority shall itself hold such inquiry or direct that such inquiry be held.
24. What opportunity must be given before imposing enhanced penalty when inquiry was already held?
(a) Fresh inquiry
(b) Opportunity of representation against proposed penalty
(c) Personal hearing
(d) Legal assistance
Correct Answer: (b) Opportunity of representation against proposed penalty
Rule 27(2) proviso (iii) requires that the appellant be given a reasonable opportunity of making a representation against the proposed enhanced penalty.
25. Who is responsible for implementing appellate authority's orders?
(a) The appellate authority itself
(b) The authority which made the original order
(c) The appointing authority
(d) The President
Correct Answer: (b) The authority which made the original order
Rule 28 clearly states that the authority which made the order appealed against shall give effect to the orders passed by the appellate authority.
Additional Questions
26. Can an appeal contain disrespectful or improper language?
(a) Yes, if facts justify it
(b) No, as per Rule 26(2)
(c) Only in extreme cases
(d) Only if allegations are serious
Correct Answer: (b) No, as per Rule 26(2)
Rule 26(2) explicitly states that the appeal shall not contain any disrespectful or improper language.
27. Should the appeal be complete in itself?
(a) No, additional documents can be submitted later
(b) Yes, as required by Rule 26(2)
(c) Only in major penalty cases
(d) Only if specifically asked
Correct Answer: (b) Yes, as required by Rule 26(2)
Rule 26(2) requires that the appeal shall be complete in itself.
28. What must the appeal contain according to Rule 26(2)?
(a) Only the request for relief
(b) All material statements and arguments
(c) Only new evidence
(d) Only procedural objections
Correct Answer: (b) All material statements and arguments
Rule 26(2) states that the appeal shall contain all material statements and arguments on which the appellant relies.
29. How should multiple appellants prefer appeals?
(a) Through a joint appeal
(b) Separately and in their own names
(c) Through their association
(d) Through legal representative
Correct Answer: (b) Separately and in their own names
Rule 26(1) requires that every person preferring an appeal shall do so separately and in his own name.
30. In appeals against orders other than suspension or penalty, what should the appellate authority consider?
(a) Only legal aspects
(b) Only procedural compliance
(c) All circumstances of the case
(d) Only the appellant's representation
Correct Answer: (c) All circumstances of the case
Rule 27(3) states that in appeal against any other order specified in rule 23, the appellate authority shall consider all the circumstances of the case.
MCQs on Procedure for Imposing Penalties - CCS Rules
MCQs on Procedure for Imposing Penalties (CCS Rules, 1965)
Test your knowledge about the procedure for imposing penalties for Central Civil Services as per the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965. Each question is based on the actual provisions of Rules 14 to 21.
Note: These questions are based on Part VI - Procedure for Imposing Penalties of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
General Procedure (Rules 14-15)
1. Which penalties require an inquiry as per Rule 14 before they can be imposed?
(a) Penalties specified in clauses (i) to (iv) of Rule 11
(b) Penalties specified in clauses (v) to (ix) of Rule 11
(c) All penalties without exception
(d) Only dismissal and removal
Correct Answer: (b) Penalties specified in clauses (v) to (ix) of Rule 11
Rule 14(1) states that no order imposing any of the penalties specified in clauses (v) to (ix) of Rule 11 shall be made except after an inquiry held as provided in this rule.
2. What is the first step in the procedure for imposing major penalties?
(a) Appointment of an inquiring authority
(b) Drawing up definite articles of charge
(c) Suspension of the government servant
(d) Consultation with UPSC
Correct Answer: (b) Drawing up definite articles of charge
Rule 14(3) states that the disciplinary authority shall draw up or cause to be drawn up the substance of the imputations of misconduct into definite and distinct articles of charge.
3. Within what time period must a government servant submit their written statement of defense after receiving articles of charge?
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
Correct Answer: (b) 15 days
Rule 14(4)(b) states that the government servant shall be required to submit his written statement of defense within a period of fifteen days.
4. What is the maximum extension that can be granted for submitting written statement of defense?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 45 days from the date of receipt
(d) 60 days
Correct Answer: (c) 45 days from the date of receipt
The proviso to Rule 14(4)(b) states that under no circumstances shall the extension of time for filing written statement of defense exceed forty-five days from the date of receipt of articles of charge.
5. When can a government servant engage a legal practitioner for defense?
(a) Always, as a matter of right
(b) Only if the Presenting Officer is a legal practitioner
(c) Only with permission from the disciplinary authority
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Rule 14(8)(a) states that a government servant may not engage a legal practitioner unless the Presenting Officer is a legal practitioner or the disciplinary authority, having regard to the circumstances of the case, so permits.
6. What happens if a government servant pleads guilty to any articles of charge?
(a) The inquiry is terminated immediately
(b) The inquiring authority records the plea and returns a finding of guilt
(c) The disciplinary authority imposes penalty without further inquiry
(d) The case is referred to the President
Correct Answer: (b) The inquiring authority records the plea and returns a finding of guilt
Rule 14(9) and (10) state that if the government servant pleads guilty, the inquiring authority shall record the plea and return a finding of guilt in respect of those articles of charge.
7. How much time is given to a government servant to inspect documents after an order is made?
(a) 3 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 10 days
Correct Answer: (b) 5 days
Rule 14(11)(i) states that the government servant may inspect within five days of the order or within such further time not exceeding five days as the inquiring authority may allow.
8. What is the time limit for the inquiring authority to submit its report?
(a) 3 months from appointment
(b) 6 months from appointment
(c) 9 months from appointment
(d) 1 year from appointment
Correct Answer: (b) 6 months from appointment
Rule 14(24)(a) states that the inquiring authority should conclude the inquiry and submit his report within a period of six months from the date of receipt of order of his appointment.
9. What is the maximum extension that can be granted for completing an inquiry?
(a) 3 months at a time
(b) 6 months at a time
(c) 9 months at a time
(d) 1 year at a time
Correct Answer: (b) 6 months at a time
Rule 14(24)(b) and (c) state that the disciplinary authority may allow an additional time not exceeding six months for completion of the inquiry at a time.
10. What must the disciplinary authority do before imposing a penalty based on the inquiry report?
(a) Obtain permission from the President
(b) Forward the report to the government servant for representation
(c) Consult the Central Vigilance Commission
(d) Publish the report in the official gazette
Correct Answer: (b) Forward the report to the government servant for representation
Rule 15(2) requires the disciplinary authority to forward a copy of the inquiry report to the government servant who may submit written representation within fifteen days.
Minor Penalties Procedure (Rule 16)
11. When is an inquiry necessary for imposing minor penalties?
(a) Always, without exception
(b) Only when the disciplinary authority deems it necessary
(c) Only for penalties involving financial implications
(d) Only when requested by the government servant
Correct Answer: (b) Only when the disciplinary authority deems it necessary
Rule 16(1)(b) states that an inquiry shall be held in the manner laid down in rule 14 in every case in which the disciplinary authority is of the opinion that such inquiry is necessary.
12. In which cases is an inquiry mandatory for minor penalties?
(a) Censure
(b) Withholding of increments likely to affect pension adversely
(c) Recovery of pecuniary loss
(d) All minor penalties
Correct Answer: (b) Withholding of increments likely to affect pension adversely
Rule 16(1-A) states that if withholding of increments is likely to affect adversely the amount of pension or exceeds three years or has cumulative effect, an inquiry shall be held.
13. What is the first requirement before imposing any minor penalty?
(a) Suspension of the government servant
(b) Obtaining permission from UPSC
(c) Informing in writing of the proposal and imputations
(d) Conducting a preliminary investigation
Correct Answer: (c) Informing in writing of the proposal and imputations
Rule 16(1)(a) requires informing the government servant in writing of the proposal to take action and of the imputations of misconduct, giving reasonable opportunity for representation.
14. When must the Commission be consulted for minor penalties?
(a) Always
(b) Only when the government servant requests
(c) Where such consultation is necessary
(d) Only for penalties affecting pension
Correct Answer: (c) Where such consultation is necessary
Rule 16(1)(d) states that the Commission shall be consulted where such consultation is necessary.
15. How much time is given to a government servant to represent against the Commission's advice?
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
Correct Answer: (b) 15 days
Rule 16(1)(d) states that the government servant shall be required to submit his written representation on the advice of the Commission within fifteen days.
Special Procedures (Rules 17-21)
16. What must be communicated to the government servant along with the order?
(a) Only the penalty order
(b) Findings on each article of charge and reasons for disagreement if any
(c) The complete inquiry report
(d) Recommendations of the inquiring authority
Correct Answer: (b) Findings on each article of charge and reasons for disagreement if any
Rule 17 requires that orders shall be communicated along with a copy of findings on each article of charge, statement of findings with reasons for disagreement if any, and copy of Commission's advice if any.
17. When can common proceedings be initiated against multiple government servants?
(a) When they are all from the same department
(b) When the President or competent authority directs
(c) Only when they have committed the same offense
(d) When requested by the accused government servants
Correct Answer: (b) When the President or competent authority directs
Rule 18(1) states that the President or any other authority competent to impose the penalty of dismissal may make an order directing that disciplinary action may be taken in a common proceeding.
18. In which of the following cases can the normal inquiry procedure be dispensed with?
(a) When the government servant is on probation
(b) When the conduct has led to conviction on a criminal charge
(c) When the offense is minor
(d) When the government servant admits the charges
Correct Answer: (b) When the conduct has led to conviction on a criminal charge
Rule 19(i) allows dispensing with the normal inquiry procedure where any penalty is imposed on a government servant on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge.
19. When can an inquiry be dispensed with on the grounds of impracticability?
(a) When witnesses are unavailable
(b) When the disciplinary authority is satisfied for recorded reasons
(c) When the case is too old
(d) When the government servant is due for retirement
Correct Answer: (b) When the disciplinary authority is satisfied for recorded reasons
Rule 19(ii) allows dispensing with inquiry where the disciplinary authority is satisfied for reasons to be recorded in writing that it is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry.
20. When can an inquiry be dispensed with in the interest of state security?
(a) When the Home Ministry recommends
(b) When the President is satisfied
(c) When the offense involves official secrets
(d) When the government servant belongs to sensitive organization
Correct Answer: (b) When the President is satisfied
Rule 19(iii) allows dispensing with inquiry where the President is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold any inquiry.
21. What is the borrowing authority's obligation when suspending a lent government servant?
(a) Seek approval from the lending authority
(b) Immediately inform the lending authority
(c) Transfer the case to the lending authority
(d) Conduct inquiry as per its own rules
Correct Answer: (b) Immediately inform the lending authority
Rule 20(1) proviso states that the borrowing authority shall forthwith inform the lending authority of the circumstances leading to the order of suspension.
22. When must the borrowing authority replace the services of a lent government servant at the disposal of the lending authority?
(a) When imposing minor penalties
(b) When imposing major penalties
(c) When there is difference of opinion
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Rule 20(2) states that for major penalties, the borrowing authority must replace the services, and the proviso to Rule 20(2)(i) states that in event of difference of opinion, services shall be replaced at the disposal of the lending authority.
23. For officers borrowed from state governments, who must be informed about suspension or disciplinary proceedings?
(a) The President
(b) The Union Public Service Commission
(c) The lending authority
(d) The state government
Correct Answer: (c) The lending authority
Rule 21(1) states that the authority lending his services shall forthwith be informed of the circumstances leading to the order of suspension or commencement of disciplinary proceeding.
24. What is required when imposing minor penalties on officers borrowed from state governments?
(a) Consultation with the lending authority
(b) Permission from the President
(c) Approval from the state government
(d) Consent of the government servant
Correct Answer: (a) Consultation with the lending authority
Rule 21(2) states that for minor penalties, the disciplinary authority may, after consultation with the lending authority, pass such orders on the case.
25. What happens if there is a difference of opinion between borrowing and lending authorities for borrowed officers?
(a) The President decides
(b) The matter is referred to UPSC
(c) Services are replaced at the disposal of the lending authority
(d) The borrowing authority's decision prevails
Correct Answer: (c) Services are replaced at the disposal of the lending authority
The proviso to Rule 21(2) states that in the event of a difference of opinion between the borrowing authority and the lending authority, the services of the government servant shall be replaced at the disposal of the lending authority.
Inquiry Process Details
26. Who can be appointed as a Presenting Officer?
(a) Only a legal practitioner
(b) Only a government servant
(c) A government servant or a legal practitioner
(d) Only a retired government officer
Correct Answer: (c) A government servant or a legal practitioner
Rule 14(5)(c) states that the disciplinary authority may appoint a Government servant or a legal practitioner to be known as the "Presenting Officer".
27. When can new evidence be called for during the inquiry?
(a) At any time to strengthen the case
(b) Only to fill up gaps in the evidence
(c) When there is inherent lacuna or defect in original evidence
(d) When requested by the government servant
Correct Answer: (c) When there is inherent lacuna or defect in original evidence
The Note to Rule 14(15) states that new evidence shall not be permitted to fill up any gap in the evidence, but may be called only when there is an inherent lacuna or defect.
28. What is the time given to government servant for preparing defense after ex parte order?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) As decided by inquiring authority
(d) No time is specified
Correct Answer: (b) 30 days
Rule 14(11) states that if the government servant fails to appear, the inquiring authority shall require the Presenting Officer to produce evidence and adjourn the case to a later date not exceeding thirty days.
29. What must the inquiry report contain?
(a) Only the findings on each charge
(b) Articles of charge, defense, evidence assessment, findings and reasons
(c) Recommendations for penalty
(d) Summary of proceedings
Correct Answer: (b) Articles of charge, defense, evidence assessment, findings and reasons
Rule 14(23)(i) specifies that the report shall contain articles of charge, defense, assessment of evidence, findings on each charge and reasons therefor.
30. Can the inquiring authority record findings on charges different from original articles?
(a) Never
(b) Yes, always
(c) Only if government servant admits or has defense opportunity
(d) Only with permission from disciplinary authority
Correct Answer: (c) Only if government servant admits or has defense opportunity
The Explanation to Rule 14(23)(i) states that findings on different charges can be recorded only if the government servant has either admitted the facts or has had a reasonable opportunity of defending himself.
