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Showing posts with label #Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label #Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers. Show all posts

Saturday, September 28, 2024

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
(b) Open in promoting economic development
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people

Answer

Answer: (a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation


Question 2.
Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Monarchy
(c) Military rule
(d) Democracy

Answer

Answer: (d) Democracy


Question 3.
Which one of the following features is common to most of the democracies?
(a) They have formal Constitution
(b) They hold regular elections
(c) They have political parties
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 4.
In which one of the following countries is democracy not preferred over dictatorship?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India

Answer

Answer: (b) Pakistan


Question 5.
Which one of the following is not the way to resolve a conflict in a democracy?
(a) Mass mobilisation
(b) Using Parliament
(c) Doing justice
(d) Armed revolution

Answer

Answer: (d) Armed revolution


Question 6.
‘Equal treatment of women’ is a necessary ingredient of a democratic society. This means that:
(a) women are actually always treated with respect.
(b) it is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights.
(c) most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated.
(d) women are now treated as equals in the political arena.

Answer

Answer: (b) it is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights.


Question 7.
Democratic government is better than non-democratic because
(a) it is a legitimate form of government.
(b) overwhelming support for the idea all over the world.
(c) it leads to a just distribution of goods and opportunities.
(d) it ensures faster economic growth.

Answer

Answer: (a) it is a legitimate form of government.


Question 8.
Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for non-democratic regimes?
(a) These do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These take less time at arriving at a decision.
(c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.

Answer

Answer: (c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.


Question 9.
In a democracy, a citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision¬making. This is known as
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Transparency
(c) Legitimacy
(d) Equality

Answer

Answer: (b) Transparency


Question 10.
To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of the following practices and institutions would one look for?
(a) Regular, free and fair elections
(b) Open public debate on major policies
(c) Citizens’ right to information about the government
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 11.
On which of the following practices and institutions can the accountability of government and involvement of people in decision-making process in a democracy be measured?
(a) Regular, free and fair elections
(b) Public debate on major policies and legislations
(c) Citizens’ right to information about government and its functioning
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 12.
Decisions taken by which type of government are likely to be more acceptable to the people and more effective?
(a) Democratic government
(b) Non-democratic government
(c) Military dictatorship
(d) Theocracy

Answer

Answer: (a) Democratic government


Question 13.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups


Question 14.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights to citizens
(b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social, economic and cultural achievements
(c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultural conditions are concerned
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 15.
Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democracy?
(a) The government don’t want to take decisions
(b) The government is hesitant in taking decisions
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation
(d) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions

Answer

Answer: (c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation


Question 16.
In the context of democracies, what is successfully done by Democracies?
(a) Eliminated conflicts among people
(b) Eliminated economic inequalities among people
(c) Eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated
(d) Rejected the idea of political inequality

Answer

Answer: (d) Rejected the idea of political inequality


Question 17.
What is promoted much superiorly by democracy than any other form of government?
(a) Economic growth
(b) Dignity and freedom of the individual
(c) Economic equality
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Dignity and freedom of the individual


Question 18.
Which regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences?
(a) Democratic regimes
(b) Non-democratic regimes
(c) Monarchy
(d) Oligarchy

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-democratic regimes


Question 19.
In which of these countries half of the population lives in poverty?
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (c) Bangladesh


Question 20.
Which among the following has a higher rate of economic growth and development?
(a) Democracies
(b) Dictatorships
(c) All non-democratic regimes
(d) Monarchies

Answer

Answer: (b) Dictatorships


Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the given cartoons taken from NCERT Textbook pages 93-96 and 99.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy with Answers 1
The above cartoons tell us about the disparities between the rich and the poor. Should the gains of economic growth be evenly distributed? How can the poor get a voice for a better share in a nation? What can the poor countries do to receive a greater share in the world’s wealth?

Answer

Answer:
In democracy all over the world we find disparities between the rich and the poor. The reason is that the gains of economic growth is not evenly distributed among the people. A smaller number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. But those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

To get a voice for a better share in a nation the poor need to come together and draw government’s attention towards their problems. If needed, they should start protest movements to get coverage in media.

The poor countries should get united and raise their voice collectively to draw the attention of the rich and powerful countries towards the problems they are suffering from. They should point out how rich countries are accountable to some of their problems and how they exploit natural resources so carelessly. The poor countries should hold meetings and discussions to pressurise the rich countries to stop doing injustices.


Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following facilities is offered by the Election Commission to a recognised political party?
(a) Party name
(b) Election funds
(c) Election symbol
(d) Manifesto

Answer

Answer: (c) Election symbol


Question 2.
Which one of the following is a ‘National Political Party’?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

Answer

Answer: (d) Bahujan Samaj Party


Question 3.
Who among the following recognises political parties in India?
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court

Answer

Answer: (a) Election Commission


Question 4.
Which one of the following countries has one party system?
(a) China
(b) Indo-China
(c) Japan
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: (a) China


Question 5.
In which of the following states does Shiv Sena exist as a regional political party?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Maharashtra


Question 6.
Name the political party that emerged out of mass movement?
(a) DMK
(b) Janata Dal
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Bahujan Sam

Answer

Answer: (b) Janata Dal


Question 7.
A recognised political party is
(a) a party that is present in only one of the federal units.
(b) a party that is present in several and all units of the federation.
(c) a party that is based on regional and communal diversities.
(d) a party recognised by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the privileges and facilities.

Answer

Answer: (d) a party recognised by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the privileges and facilities.


Question 8.
An example of a country having the multi party system is
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) United Kingdom

Answer

Answer: (c) India


Question 9.
How many parties are needed in any democratic system to compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties ; to come to power?
(a) Less than two
(b) At least two parties
(c) More than two parties
(d) At least three parties

Answer

Answer: (b) At least two parties


Question 10.
The number of political parties registered with the Election Commission of India is
(a) 750 parties
(b) more than 750 parties
(c) Less than 750 parties
(d) 705 parties

Answer

Answer: (b) more than 750 parties


Question 11.
How many parties are registered with the Election Commission of India?
(a) 250
(b) 300
(c) 500
(d) More than 750

Answer

Answer: (d) More than 750
Explanation:
There are a large number of political parties in each country. More than 750 parties are registered with the Election Commission of India.


Question 12.
What is a signed document submitted to an officer regarding her personal information?
(a) Affidavit
(b) Declaration
(c) Agreement
(d) Appeal

Answer

Answer: (a) Affidavit
Explanation:
An affidavit is a signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal information.


Question 13.
Which of these statements is incorrect about CPI (M)?
(a) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy
(b) Opposes imperialism and communalism
(c) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation:
CPI(M) supports socialism, secularism and democracy and opposes imperialism and communalism. Accepts democratic elections as a useful and helpful means for securing the objective of socio- economic justice in India.


Question 14.
Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India?
(a) Members and supporters of the party
(b) Top party leadership
(c) The existing government
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Top party leadership
Explanation:
In other countries like India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.


Question 15.
When and under whose leadership was Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) formed?
(a) 1982, Mayawati
(b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
(c) 1985, Mulayam Singh Yadav
(d) 1986, Bhajanlal

Answer

Answer: (b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
Explanation:
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. Seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.


Question 16.
When was the BJP founded?
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1980
(d) 1990

Answer

Answer: (c) 1980
Explanation:
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh.


Question 17.
How many recognised national parties were there in 2006?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (b) 6
Explanation:
According to the classification, there were six national recognised parties in the country in 2006


Question 18.
What are the parties which are given the special privilege of ‘election symbol’ and other facilities?
(a) ‘Identified’ by the Election Commission
(b) ‘Recognised’ by the Election Commission
(c) ‘Patronised’ by the Election Commission
(d) ‘Attached’ by the Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) ‘Recognised’ by the Election Commission
Explanation:
Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That’s why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’.


Question 19.
Which of these alliances were there in 2004 parliamentary elections in India?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) The United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above
Explanation:
In India there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections– the National Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance and the Left Front.


Question 20.
Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state?
(a) One-party system
(b) Two-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) One-party system
Explanation:
We cannot consider one-party system as a good option because this is not a democratic option. Any democratic system must allow at least two parties to compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power.


Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Study at the following photographs from NCERT textbook page 75 and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers 1
(i) Activists of BJP Mahila Morcha demonstrate against hike in prices of onions and LPG in Vishakhapatnam.
(ii) Minister distributes Rs One lakh cheque to the families of hooch victims at their houses.
(iii) Activists of CPI (M), CPI, OGP and JD (S) take out a rally in Bhubaneswar to protest against POSCO, the Korean steel company for being permitted by the State Government to export iron ore from Orissa to feed steel plants in China and Korea.

Answer

Answer:

  1. Role of opposition
  2. Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes.
  3. Parties shape public opinion.

Question 2.
Now categorise these photographs by the functions of political parties they illustrate. Find one photograph or news clipping from your own area for each of the functions listed above.
Look at the following cartoon from NCERT textbook page 83,84 & 85 and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers 2
Can you identify which of the challenges described in this section are being highlighted in these cartoons? What are the ways to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics?

Answer

Answer:
The challenges highlighted here are about the growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during elections.

Some of the ways to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics are:

  1. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give parties money to support their election expenses.
  2. Public participation should be increased.
  3. The Supreme Court order to reduce the influence of money and muscle power should be made strict.

Activity/Project-based Questions:

Give the symbols of the following national and state/regional political parties:

  1. Bahujan Samaj Party
  2. Communist Party of India-Marxist – (CPI-M)
  3. National Congress Party (NCP)
  4. Assam United Democratic Front
  5. Samajwadi Party
  6. Rashtriya Janata Dal
  7. Janata Dal (U)
  8. Biju Janata Dal
Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers 3


Gender Religion and Caste Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
What is the percentage of Hindus in India, as per the 2001 Census?
(a) 13.4
(b) 80.5
(c) 90.2
(d) 91

Answer

Answer: (b) 80.5


Question 2.
Family laws deal with
(a) marriage and divorce
(b) adoption
(c) inheritance
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 3.
In India, the representation of women in legislature has been
(a) moderate
(b) high
(c) low
(d) very low

Answer

Answer: (d) very low


Question 4.
The system where father is the head of the family is called
(a) hierarchy
(b) matriarchy
(c) patriarchy
(d) monarchy

Answer

Answer: (c) patriarchy


Question 5.
Jotiba Phule was a/an
(a) social reformer
(b) political leader
(c) educationist
(d) environmentalist

Answer

Answer: (a) social reformer


Question 6.
Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It
(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) gives official status to one religion.
(c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion.
(d) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.

Answer

Answer: (b) gives official status to one religion.


Question 7.
When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:
(a) Biological difference between men and women
(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
(c) Unequal child sex ratio
(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies.

Answer

Answer: (b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women


Question 8.
The distinguishing feature of communalism is:
(a) Followers of a particular religion must belong to one community.
(b) Communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different religions can live as equal citizens within one nation.
(c) A communal mind does not lead to quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community.
(d) A secular constitution is sufficient combat communalism.

Answer

Answer: (a) Followers of a particular religion must belong to one community.


Question 9.
Which leaders worked for the elimination of caste system in India?
(a) Jotiba Phule, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ram as warn Naicker
(b) Raja Ram Mohun Roy, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jotiba Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Swami Vivekanand, Jotiba Phule and Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Answer

Answer: (a) Jotiba Phule, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ram as warn Naicker


Question 10.
“A woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for men and women.” Select the correct option for the definition.
(a) Feminist
(b) Patriarchy
(c) Caste hierarchy
(d) Social change

Answer

Answer: (a) Feminist


Question 11.
What step taken to provide representation to women in Panchayats and Municipalities?
(a) Reservation for election to half of the seats for women
(b) Appointment of 1/3 women members
(c) Reservation for election to 1/3 of the seats for women
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Reservation for election to 1/3 of the seats for women
Explanation:
Women’s organisations and activists have been demanding a similar reservation of at least one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women.


Question 12.
In which of these categories of work do you think less time is spent by men?
(a) Household and related work
(b) Sleep, self-care, reading etc.
(c) Income-generating work
(d) Talking and gossiping

Answer

Answer: (a) Household and related work
Explanation:
Household and related work are the categories of work in which less time is spent by men.


Question 13.
Indian society is of which type?
(a) A matriarchal society
(b) A patriarchal society
(c) A fraternal society
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) A patriarchal society
Explanation:
In our country, women still lag much behind men despite some improvement since Independence. Ours is still a male dominated, patriarchal society. Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression.


Question 14.
What is the result of political expression of gender division?
(a) Has helped to improve women’s role in public life
(b) Has provided a superior status to women
(c) The position remains the same, as it was
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Has helped to improve women’s role in public life
Explanation:
The result of political expression of gender division has helped to improve women’s role in public life.


Question 15.
What is mean by the term ‘Feminist’?
(a) Having the qualities considered typical of women.
(b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.
(c) The belief that men and women are equal.
(d) Men who look like women.

Answer

Answer: (b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.
Explanation:
Feminist is a woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.


Question 16.
Which of these matters deal with the ‘Family Laws’?
(a) Marriage and divorce
(b) Adoption
(c) Inheritance
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
Family laws: Those laws that deal with family related matters such as marriage, divorce, adoption, inheritance, etc. In our country, different family laws apply to followers of different religions.


Question 17.
Which of these is true about the most ugly form of communalism?
(a) Communal violence
(b) Riots
(c) Massacre
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above
Explanation:
Sometimes communalism takes its most ugly form of communal violence, riots and massacre. India and Pakistan suffered some of the worst communal riots at the time of the Partition.


Question 18.
What is leading to the breakdown of caste hierarchy?
(a) Large-scale urbanisation
(b) Growth of literacy and education
(c) Occupational mobility
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
With economic development, large scale urbanisation, growth of literacy and education, occupational mobility and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of caste hierarchy are breaking down.


Question 19.
The percentage of elected women members in the Lok Sabha has never reached what per cent of its total strength?
(a) 25%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 5%

Answer

Answer: (c) 10%
Explanation:
The percentage of elected women members in the Lok Sabha has never reached even 10 per cent of its total strength.


Question 20.
In some places in India, by how much the child sex ratio has fallen to as low as?
(a) 927
(b) 840
(c) 820
(d) 800

Answer

Answer: (d) 800
Explanation:
Sex-selective abortion led to a decline in child sex ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) in the country to merely 914. In some part of India this ratio has fallen below 850 or even 800 in some places.


Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the following cartoon taken from the NCERT Textbook Page 53 and answer the question that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste with Answers 1

Answer

Answer:
No. They are not right in anyway. They should be above caste feelings and try their best in establishing a casteless society. Needless to say, that if caste is the base of society and election, it will only hamper the growth of the country. Political leaders should not do anything that undermines the value of democracy. They should be broad-minded and do work for the welfare of the entire nation.


Question 2.
Do you think that political leaders are right to treat people belonging to a caste as ‘vote banks’?
Look at the following picture taken from the NCERT Textbook Page 54 and answer the question that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste with Answers 2
What was aparthied? How was it oppressive for the blacks in South Africa?

Answer

Answer:
Aparthied was a former policy of racial segregation in South Africa. The White Europeans imposed this system on South Africa. This system was very oppressive for the blacks as it divided the people and labelled them on the basis of their skin colour. The white rulers treated the blacks and other non-whites as inferiors. They were forbidden from living in white areas.

They did not have voting rights. Trains, buses, hotels, hospitals, beaches, swimming pools were all separate for the whites and the blacks. The schools and hospitals meant for the blacks did not have proper facilities. Blacks could not even protest against the terrible treatment. Thus, they were forced to lead a very tough and miserable life.

It was only due to the efforts of Nelson Mandela, that freed them from such an oppressive system.


Federalism Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
The number of seats reserved for women in the panchayats and municipalities is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) half
(d) one-fifth

Answer

Answer: (b) one-third


Question 2.
‘Holding together federations are not found in
(a) India
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: (d) Australia


Question 3.
Subjects like computer software comes in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List

Answer

Answer: (d) Residuary List


Question 4.
Which of the following states has been given a special status?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Tripura
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana

Answer

Answer: (a) Jammu and Kashmir


Question 5.
The number of Scheduled Languages in India is
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 25

Answer

Answer: (b) 22


Question 6.
Which one of the following States in India has its own Constitution?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) J & K
(d) Nagaland

Answer

Answer: (c) J & K


Question 7.
Which among the following are examples of ‘Coming together federations’?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: (c) USA, Switzerland and Australia


Question 8.
In India’s federal system, the state governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Residuary subjects

Answer

Answer: (b) State list


Question 9.
The Constitution of India
(a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.
(b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists.
(c) listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the pow ers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.

Answer

Answer: (a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.


Question 10.
In case of a clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the concurrent list:
(a) the state law prevails.
(b) the central law prevails.
(c) both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.
(d) the Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.

Answer

Answer: (b) the central law prevails.


Question 11.
What is the third tier of government known as?
(a) Village Panchayats
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Zila Parishad

Answer

Answer: (c) Local self-government
Explanation:
The third tier of government known as the local self-government. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.


Question 12.
What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
(b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.

Answer

Answer: (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
Explanation:
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.


Question 13.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?
(a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
(b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government.
(c) A state government is conservable to central government.
(d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.

Answer

Answer: (d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
Explanation:
Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government and state government is conservable to central government.


Question 14.
What are the kinds of routes through which federations have been formed?
(a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit
(b) The second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the states and the national government
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.


Question 15.
Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country?
(a) Period after 1990
(b) Period after 2000
(c) Period after 1980
(d) Period after 1970

Answer

Answer: (a) Period after 1990
Explanation:
All this changed significantly after 1990. This period saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of coalition government at the Centre.


Question 16.
Which language is recognised as the national language by the Constitution of India?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Tamil
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians.


Question 17.
Which state of India enjoys a special status and has its own Constitution?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this State. Indians who are not permanent residents of this State cannot buy land or house here.


Question 18.
Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union list?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign affairs
(c) Police
(d) Banking

Answer

Answer: (c) Police
Explanation:
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.


Question 19.
Which of the following is not an example of ‘holding together’ federations?
(a) India
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Switzerland

Answer

Answer: (d) Switzerland
Explanation:
A large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations.


Question 20.
Which level of government in India has the power to legislate on the ‘residuary’ subjects?
(a) Union government
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (a) Union government
Explanation:
According to our constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects.


Picture-based Questions:

Look at the following cartoons taken from NCERT Textbook page 21 and answer the question that follow:

The States Plead for More Powers
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers 1
Perils of Running a Coalition Government
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers 2
Question:
The above two cartoons show the relationship between Centre and States. Should the State go to the Centre with a begging bowl? How can the leader of a coalition keep the partners of government satisfied?

Answer

Answer:
The State should not go to the Centre in such a manner. Ours is a federal country and the principle of federalism works on the power sharing arrangement. The two levels of government i.e., the Centre and State governments have their own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration. Hence, the centre cannot order the State government to do something, nor can it stop them from ensuring their rights as autonomous federal units.

The leader of the coalition should accommodate different groups and factions in his/her party as well as among alliance partners. He/she should heed to the views and positions of the coalition partners and do accordingly.


Power Sharing Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called the
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Christian Tamils

Answer

Answer: (c) Sri Lankan Tamils


Question 2.
The term Eelam stands for
(a) government
(b) state
(c) country
(d) political party

Answer

Answer: (b) state


Question 3.
Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called
(a) horizontal division
(b) parallel division
(c) vertical division
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) vertical division


Question 4.
Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?
(a) French and English
(b) Dutch and Sinhala
(c) French and Sinhala
(d) Dutch and French.

Answer

Answer: (d) Dutch and French.


Question 5.
Brussels is the capital of
(a) Belgium
(b) the Netherland
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) West Indies

Answer

Answer: (a) Belgium


Question 6.
A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.

Answer

Answer: (c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.


Question 7.
In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power. !
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through institutions of self-governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.

Answer

Answer: (d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.


Question 8.
System of ‘checks and balances’ means:
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) Separation of powers.
(c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.
(d) Federal division of powers

Answer

Answer: (c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.


Question 9.
Power sharing is:
(a) the very spirit of democracy
(b) separation of powers at different levels.
(c) system of checks and balances.
(d) a type of balancing powers.

Answer

Answer: (a) the very spirit of democracy


Question 10.
Who elects the community government in Belgium?
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of the whole country.
(d) The community leaders of Belgium.

Answer

Answer: (a) People belonging to one language community only.


Question 11.
In which year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (b) 1948
Explanation:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.


Question 12.
Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Hinduism
(c) Islam
(d) Christianity

Answer

Answer: (a) Buddhism
Explanation:
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.


Question 13.
Which major social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims

Answer

Answer: (a) Sinhalas
Explanation:
The major social groups in Sri Lanka are the Sinhala-speakers (74 per cent) and the Tamil-speakers (18 per cent)


Question 14.
Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?
(a) German
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (c) Dutch
Explanation:
Of the Belgian’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language.


Question 15.
Which religion is followed by Sinhala speaking people?
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Buddhists
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Buddhists
Explanation:
Most of the Sinhala speaking people are Buddhists, while most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims.


Question 16.
Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (b) Sinhala
Explanation:
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.


Question 17.
Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government powers are shared?
(a) Legislature
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary

Answer

Answer: (b) Bureaucracy
Explanation:
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.


Question 18.
Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of powers?
(a) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments
(b) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government
(c) The Constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of government
(d) There is no vertical division of powers

Answer

Answer: (d) There is no vertical division of powers
Explanation:
The aspects of federal division of powers are sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments, Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government.


Question 19.
What led to non-sharing of power?
(a) Peace among all the communities
(b) The tyranny of the majority and oppression of minority
(c) Negation of the very spirit of democracy
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Non-sharing of power led to tyranny of the majority and oppression of minority and negation of the very spirit of democracy.


Question 20.
How many times was the Constitution of Belgium amended between 1970 and 1993?
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Five times
(d) Four times

Answer

Answer: (d) Four times
Explanation:
Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.


Picture-based Questions:

Look at the given cartoon taken from the NCERT Textbook Page 8 and answer the question that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers 1

Question:
In 2005, some new laws were made in Russia giving more powers to its President. During the same time the US President visited Russia. What, according to this cartoon, is the relationship between democracy and concentration of power? Can you think of some other examples to illustrate the point being made here?

Answer

Answer:
A good democracy opposes the idea of concentration of powers. It welcomes the idea of sharing of power for the smooth running of the government. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the ultimate source of all political power. Giving more power to the Russian President means power is concentrated in one person which is against the principle of democracy.


Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Which problem has been raised in Gulamgiri?
(a) The injustices of caste system
(b) Excessive drinking among the poor
(c) The miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu women
(d) Widow immolation

Answer

Answer: (a) The injustices of caste system


Question 2.
The Bengal Gazette was edited by
(a) Gangadhar Bhattacharya
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy
(c) James Augustus Hickey
(d) Richard M. Hoe

Answer

Answer: (c) James Augustus Hickey


Question 3.
The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China, Japan and
(a) Korea
(b) France
(c) India
(d) England

Answer

Answer: (a) Korea


Question 4.
Who said, “Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.”?
(a) Charles Dickens
(b) Louise-Sebastien Mercier
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Martin Luther

Answer

Answer: (d) Martin Luther


Question 5.
Diomond Sultra is the oldest printed book of
(a) Korea
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) China

Answer

Answer: (c) Japan


Question 6.
Martin Luther was a/an
(a) social reformer
(b) religious reformer
(c) environmentalist
(d) educationist

Answer

Answer: (b) religious reformer


Question 7.
Penny magazines were especially meant for
(a) children
(b) factory workers
(c) women
(d) elite class

Answer

Answer: (c) women


Question 8.
What made Governor-General Warren Hastings persecute James Hickey who edited the Bengal Gazette?
(a) He published articles supporting Indian nationalist leaders.
(b) He published advertisements related to import and sale of slaves.
(c) He published anti-religious articles.
(d) He published gossip about senior East India Company officials.

Answer

Answer: (d) He published gossip about senior East India Company officials.


Question 9.
The main theme of the book ‘Chhote aur Bade Ka Sawal’ written by Kashibaba, a Kanpur mill worker, was:
(a) The life of the elite upper castes.
(b) The link between caste and class exploitation.
(c) Restrictions on the Vernacular Press.
(d) Injustices of the caste system.

Answer

Answer: (b) The link between caste and class exploitation.


Question 10.
Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed by the British Government in India?
(a) The Vernacular Act was passed to promote vernacular languages.
(b) The Vernacular Act was passed by the British government to put some check on vernacular newspapers which had become assertively nationalist.
(c) The Vernacular Act was passed to please the Indians who wanted to promote Indian languages.
(d) The Vernacular Act was passed to consolidate British rule in India.

Answer

Answer: (b) The Vernacular Act was passed by the British government to put some check on vernacular newspapers which had become assertively nationalist.


Question 11.
What do you mean by the term ‘Galley’?
(a) A metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed
(b) A corridor
(c) A scarecrow
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed
Explanation:
Galley is the metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed.


Question 12.
Who was the first to use wood-block printing?
(a) Indian
(b) French
(c) Spaniards
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Spaniards
Explanation:
The first to use wood-block printing were the Spaniards. By the early fifteenth century, woodblocks were being widely used in Europe to print textiles, playing cards, and religious pictures with simple, brief texts.


Question 13.
Who was Kitagawa Utamaro?
(a) A Japanese artist
(b) An Indian artist
(c) An Korean artist
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A Japanese artist
Explanation:
Kitagawa Utamaro was a Japanese artist born in Edo in 1753, famous for his contribution to an art form called ‘Ukiyo’ which influenced European artists like Manet, Monet and Van Gogh.


Question 14.
What do you mean by the term ‘Calligraph’?
(a) The art of beautiful printing
(b) The art of beautiful hand printing
(c) The art of beautiful and stylised writing
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) The art of beautiful and stylised writing
Explanation:
The term Calligraph means the art of beautiful and stylised writing. Superbly skilled craftsmen could duplicate, with remarkable accuracy, as the beauty of calligraphy.


Question 15.
Who was known for an art form called ukiyo?
(a) Chinz ho
(b) Kitagawa Utamaro
(c) Gutenberg
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Kitagawa Utamaro
Explanation:
Kitagawa Utamaro, born in Edo in 1753, was widely known for his contributions to an art form called ukiyo ‘pictures of the floating world’


Question 16.
What was the first book printed by Gutenberg?
(a) Bible
(b) Ramayana
(c) Chapbook
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bible
Explanation:
The first printing press in Europe is invented by Johann Gutenberg in 1448. The first book he printed was the Bible. About 180 copies were printed at that time.


Question 17.
What was the ancient name of Tokyo?
(a) Edo
(b) Osaka
(c) Gifu
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Edo
Explanation:
Edo was the ancient name of Tokyo. In the late eighteenth century, the flourishing urban circles at Edo (later to be known as Tokyo), and illustrated collections of paintings.


Question 18.
What was the ‘Bengal Gazette’?
(a) First English magazine
(b) English Hindi mixed magazine
(c) A weekly Hindi magazine
(d) A weekly English magazine

Answer

Answer: (d) A weekly English magazine
Explanation:
Bengal Gazette was a weekly English magazine edited by James Hickey from 1780, described as a commercial paper open to all, and influenced by none.


Question 19.
Which is not an innovation of the 20th century?
(a) Cheap paperback editions
(b) The dust cover
(c) Important novels were serialised
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Important novels were serialised
Explanation:
Printers and publishers developed new strategies to sell their products. Important novels were serialised, which led to a new way of writing novels. It is not an innovation of the20th century.


Question 20.
What was Protestant Reformation?
(a) A challenge to the authority of Rome
(b) Movement to reform the Catholic Church
(c) A new religion
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Movement to reform the Catholic Church
Explanation:
Protestant Reformation was a 16th century movement to reform the Catholic Church dominated by Rome. Martin Luther was one of the main Protestant reformers. Several traditions of anti-Catholic Christianity developed out of the movement.


Question 21.
Who spoke these words “Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.”?
(a) Johann Gutenberg
(b) Jawahar lal Nehru
(c) martin Luther
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) martin Luther
Explanation:
Deeply grateful to print, Luther said, ‘Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.’ Several scholars, in fact, think that print brought about a new intellectual atmosphere and helped spread the new ideas that led to the Reformation.


Question 22.
The book, ‘Chote Aur Bade Ka Sawal’ talked about which social reforms?
(a) The link between caste and class exploitation
(b) The injustices of the caste system
(c) Restrictions on the vernacular press
(d) Ill treatment of widows

Answer

Answer: (a) The link between caste and class exploitation
Explanation:
Kashibaba, a Kanpur millworker, wrote and published Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938 to show the links between caste and class exploitation.


Question 23.
Which book was carried by petty pedlars and sold for a penny?
(a) Novels
(b) Magazines
(c) Chapbook
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Chapbook
Explanation:
In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them.


Question 24.
When was the Paperback editions of books were introduced?
(a) The onset of the Great Depression
(b) The First World War
(c) The Second World War
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) The onset of the Great Depression
Explanation:
The Paperback editions of books were introduced during the onset of the Great depression. To sustain buying, all brought out cheap paperback editions.


Question 25.
Who introduced the first printing press in India?
(a) East India company
(b) Arabic traders
(c) Portuguese missionaries
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Portuguese missionaries
Explanation:
The printing press was first introduced in India by Portuguese missionaries.


Picture Based Questions

Question 1.
Study the picture (NCERT TB page 157). Identify the personality and answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World with Answers 1
(i) Who is he? Which country did he belong to?
(ii) What did he invent? When?
(iii) Name the first book that he printed.

Answer

Answer:
(i) He is Johann Gutenberg. He belonged to Germany.
(ii) He invented printing press in 1430’s.
(iii) The Bible.


Source Based Questions

Question 1.
Read the extract (Source E) taken from Textbook page 172 and then answer the questions that follow:

In 1926, Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein, a noted educationist and literary figure, strongly condemned men for withholding education from women in the name of religion as she addressed the Bengal Women’s Education Conference:

‘The opponents of female education say that women will become unruly… Fie! They call themselves Muslims and yet go against the basic tenet of Islam which gives Women an equal right to education. If men are not led astray once educated, why should women?’

(i) Who was Begum Rokeya Hossein?
(ii) Why did she condemn men?
(iii) What was her opinion about women’s education?

Answer

Answer:
(i) Begum Rokeya Hossein was a noted educationist and literary figure.
(ii) She condemned men for withholding education from women in the name of religion.
(iii) She opined that women must be given education. They must be given an equal right to education.


The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Who set up the first Indian Jute Mill in Calcutta?
(a) G.D. Birla
(b) Seth Hukumchand
(c) Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore

Answer

Answer: (b) Seth Hukumchand


Question 2.
A fuller’s job is to
(a) pick up wool
(b) sort wool according to its fibre
(c) gather cloth by pleating
(d) carry wool to the spinner

Answer

Answer: (c) gather cloth by pleating


Question 3.
Which of the following countries faced labour shortage in the nineteenth century?
(a) America
(b) Britain
(c) France
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: (a) America


Question 4.
The ports of Surat and Hoogly decayed in the
(a) sixteenth century
(b) seventeenth century
(c) eighteenth century
(d) nineteenth century

Answer

Answer: (b) seventeenth century


Question 5.
The first cotton mill in India was established in
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Gujarat
(d) Bombay

Answer

Answer: (b) Calcutta


Question 6.
Dwarkanath Tagore was alan
(a) philanthropist
(b) educationist
(c) social reformer
(d) industrialist

Answer

Answer: (d) industrialist


Question 7.
Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) The cotton crop perished
(b) Raw cotton exports increased
(c) Local markets shrank
(d) Export market collapsed

Answer

Answer: (b) Raw cotton exports increased


Question 8.
In Victorian Britain the upper classes- aristocratic class and bourgeoisie preferred handmade goods because:
(a) they were made from imported material.
(b) the handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.
(c) they were better finished.
(d) only upper class could afford the expensive items.

Answer

Answer: (b) the handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.


Question 9.
By late 19th century why did the British manufacturers print calendars for advertisements?
(a) Indian people were fond of using calendars in their houses.
(b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who did not know how to read or write.
(c) It was cheaper to advertise goods through calendars.
(d) It used to add beauty to the room.

Answer

Answer: (b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who did not know how to read or write.


Question 10.
Which of the following innovations helped the weavers in increasing productivity and compete with mill sector?
(a) Spining jenny
(b) Fly shuttle
(c) Cotton Gin
(d) Roller

Answer

Answer: (b) Fly shuttle


Question 11.
What do you mean by ‘Gomastha’?
(a) An officer of the Company who acted as a go-between the Company and Indian traders
(b) An officer of the East India Company who looked after the textile trade
(c) A paid servant of the Company who supervised weavers, collected supplies and examined the quality of the cloth
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) A paid servant of the Company who supervised weavers, collected supplies and examined the quality of the cloth.
Explanation:
First: the Company tried to eliminate the existing traders and later they appoint a paid servant called the gomastha to supervise weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth.


Question 12.
According to historians, who was the typical worker in the mid-nineteenth century?
(a) Craftsperson and labourer
(b) Machine operator
(c) Unskilled labour
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Craftsperson and labourer
Explanation:
The typical worker in the mid-nineteenth century, according to historians, was traditional craftsperson and labourer and not a machine operator.


Question 13.
What do you mean by Carding?
(a) In spinning
(b) In weaving
(c) In which cotton or wool fibres are prepared for spinning
(d) In which finishing of cloth is done

Answer

Answer: (c) In which cotton or wool fibres are prepared for spinning
Explanation:
Carding is a process in which cotton or wool fibres are prepared for spinning.


Question 14.
Who was the Staplers and Fullers?
(a) Gathers cloth by pleating
(b) Sorts wool according to its fibre
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
A Fuller ‘fulls’ or gathers cloth by pleating and ‘staples’ or sorts wool according to its fibre. A merchant clothier in England purchased wool from a wool stapler, and carried it to the spinners, the yarn (thread) that was spun was taken in subsequent stages of production to weavers, fullers, and then to dyers.


Question 15.
What was the reason behind new merchants could not set up business in the towns in Europe?
(a) The rules became barrier
(b) Scarcity of product to start any business
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts made it difficult
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c. The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts made it difficult
Explanation:
The new merchants could not set up business in the towns in Europe, because the powerful trade guilds and urban crafts made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns and restricted their entry.


Question 16.
Which pre-colonial port connected India to the Gulf countries and the Red Sea ports?
(a) Bombay
(b) Hooghly
(c) Surat
(d) Machhalipatanam

Answer

Answer: (c) Surat
Explanation:
Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports; Masulipatam on the Coromandel coast and Hoogly in Bengal had trade links with Southeast Asian ports.


Question 17.
Who produced music book that Dawn of the Century?
(a) New Comen
(b) James Watt
(c) E. T. Paul
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) E. T. Paul
Explanation:
E. T. Paul produced a popular music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing the Dawn of the Century.


Question 18.
What were supply during the First World War from Indian factories?
(a) Jute bags and cloth for army uniforms
(b) Tents and leather boots
(c) Horse and mule saddles
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
There are many items supply by Indian factories during the First World War. They are jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles, besides other things.


Question 19.
When did the export of Indian yarn to China declined?
(a) 1906
(b) 1910
(c) 1915
(d) 1902

Answer

Answer: (a) 1906
Explanation:
The export of Indian yarn to China declined in 1906, because produce from the Chinese and Japanese mills flooded the Chinese market.


Question 20.
Which War caused new problems for Indian weavers?
(a) The American Civil War
(b) First world war
(c) Second world war
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) The American Civil War
Explanation:
The American Civil War caused new problems for Indian weavers. Indian weavers could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality.The Americans stopped supplying raw cotton to Britain due to the Civil War.


Question 21.
Who was Dwarkanath Tagore?
(a) A social reformer
(b) Musician
(c) Industrialist
(d) Painter

Answer

Answer: (c) Industrialist
Explanation:
Dwarkanath Tagore was the Industrialist. In Bengal, he made his fortune in the China trade before he turned to industrial investment, setting up six joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s.


Question 22.
In 1917 who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta?
(a) Seth Hukumchand
(b) G.D. Birla
(c) Jamsedjee Tata
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Seth Hukumchand
Explanation:
Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917. He also traded with China.


Question 23.
In which century, the exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically?
(a) 17th century
(b) 19th century
(c) 20th century
(d) 18th century

Answer

Answer: (b) 19th century
Explanation:
In the twentieth century, handloom cloth production expanded steadily almost trebling the exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically.


Question 24.
During the 19th century, Which were the most dynamic industries in Britain?
(a) Cotton and metal
(b) Metal and sugar
(c) Sugar and cotton
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cotton and metal
Explanation:
The most dynamic industries in Britain during 19th century were cotton and metal.


Question 25.
What are the problems faced by the cotton weavers in India?
(a) Export market had collapsed
(b) They did not have good quality cotton
(c) Imported goods were cheap
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
The following problems was faced by cotton weavers in India and they are Export market had collapsed ,they did not have good quality cotton and Imported goods were cheap.


Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the given picture taken from Textbook Page 125 and then answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers 1
(i) What do you see in the above picture? What is the goddess shown offering?
(ii) What message does the manufacturer want to convey to the people of India?
(iii) How did people of India support the swadeshi movement?

Answer

Answer:
(i) In the above picture, the goddess is offering clothes to the people.
(ii) The manufacturer wants to convey to the people of India that it is also the will of goddess that people should use country made things.
(iii) The people of India supported the swadeshi movement using country made things.


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