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Whistleblower Protection Act 2014 - MCQs Quiz

Test your knowledge on India's Whistleblower Protection Act, 2014. Click "Show Answer" to reveal the correct option and explanation.

Question 1: What is the primary purpose of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014?

• a) To regulate corporate taxes
• b) To protect whistleblowers from victimization
• c) To establish new courts
• d) To control media reporting

Correct: b) To protect whistleblowers from victimization
Explanation: The Act establishes a mechanism to investigate public interest disclosures of corruption and protects those who make such disclosures.

Question 2: When was the Whistle Blowers Protection Act enacted?

• a) 2011
• b) 2014
• c) 2004
• d) 2015

Correct: b) 2014
Explanation: The Act received Presidential assent on May 9, 2014, and is officially known as No. 17 of 2014.

Question 3: Who can make a disclosure under the Act?

• a) Only government employees
• b) Any person
• c) Only journalists
• d) Only NGOs

Correct: b) Any person
Explanation: The Act allows any person to make a public interest disclosure against a public servant.

Question 4: What does the Act primarily address?

• a) Environmental pollution
• b) Corruption and misuse of power by public servants
• c) Labor rights
• d) Consumer protection

Correct: b) Corruption and misuse of power by public servants
Explanation: It targets acts of corruption, willful misuse of discretion, or criminal offenses by public servants.

Question 5: Which authority is designated to receive disclosures?

• a) Supreme Court
• b) Competent Authority
• c) Local Police
• d) Media Houses

Correct: b) Competent Authority
Explanation: Disclosures are made before a Competent Authority specified for each category of public servant.

Question 6: What protection is provided to whistleblowers under Section 11?

• a) Financial rewards
• b) Safeguard against victimization
• c) Job promotion
• d) Media coverage

Correct: b) Safeguard against victimization
Explanation: Section 11 prohibits victimization of the complainant and provides safeguards.

Question 7: What penalty is prescribed for false complaints?

• a) Fine only
• b) Imprisonment up to 2 years
• c) No penalty
• d) Community service

Correct: b) Imprisonment up to 2 years
Explanation: Knowingly making false complaints is punishable with imprisonment up to 2 years or fine or both.

Question 8: The Act was a response to which Supreme Court directive?

• a) 2001 Law Commission Report
• b) Satyendra Dubey murder case (2004)
• c) 2011 Lokpal Bill
• d) 2013 Companies Act

Correct: b) Satyendra Dubey murder case (2004)
Explanation: The SC directed the government to set up machinery for whistleblower complaints.

Question 9: Which resolution preceded the Act?

• a) PIDPIR 2004
• b) CVC Act 2003
• c) RTI Act 2005
• d) Lokpal Act 2013

Correct: a) PIDPIR 2004
Explanation: Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution, 2004, designated CVC as nodal agency.

Question 10: Does the Act cover private sector employees?

• a) Yes, fully
• b) No, only public servants
• c) Partially, if funded by government
• d) Only corporate whistleblowers

Correct: b) No, only public servants
Explanation: The Act is restricted to public servants; private sector is covered under Companies Act 2013.

Question 11: Who appoints the Competent Authority?

• a) President
• b) Central Government
• c) Supreme Court
• d) CVC

Correct: b) Central Government
Explanation: The Central Government notifies the Competent Authority for different public servants.

Question 12: What is a key criticism of the Act?

• a) Too many rewards
• b) Lack of implementation and rules
• c) Covers too many sectors
• d) No anonymity

Correct: b) Lack of implementation and rules
Explanation: Rules have not been notified, leading to non-operationalization.

Question 13: Which convention influenced the Act?

• a) UDHR
• b) UN Convention against Corruption
• c) Paris Agreement
• d) Kyoto Protocol

Correct: b) UN Convention against Corruption
Explanation: India signed UNCAC in 2005, encouraging whistleblower protections.

Question 14: What does Section 4 prohibit?

• a) Anonymous complaints
• b) Disclosure of identity
• c) False complaints
• d) All of the above

Correct: b) Disclosure of identity
Explanation: Section 4 mandates confidentiality of the whistleblower's identity.

Question 15: The Act applies to which offenses?

• a) Only financial corruption
• b) Corruption, misuse of power, criminal offenses
• c) Only criminal offenses
• d) Environmental violations

Correct: b) Corruption, misuse of power, criminal offenses
Explanation: It covers willful misuse of discretion or criminal acts by public servants.

Question 16: Who investigates the disclosures?

• a) Police
• b) Competent Authority or designated agency
• c) CBI automatically
• d) Local courts

Correct: b) Competent Authority or designated agency
Explanation: The Competent Authority inquires or forwards to the appropriate agency.

Question 17: Is anonymity allowed in complaints?

• a) Yes
• b) No
• c) Only for government employees
• d) Only if approved

Correct: b) No
Explanation: The Act does not admit anonymous or pseudonymous complaints.

Question 18: What is the role of CVC under the Act?

• a) To enact rules
• b) Nodal agency for complaints (pre-Act)
• c) To prosecute
• d) To reward whistleblowers

Correct: b) Nodal agency for complaints (pre-Act)
Explanation: Under PIDPIR 2004, CVC handles whistleblower complaints.

Question 19: Which case led to the 2004 Resolution?

• a) Manjunath Shanmugam murder
• b) Satyendra Dubey murder
• c) 2G Scam
• d) CWG Scam

Correct: b) Satyendra Dubey murder
Explanation: Dubey's murder in 2003 prompted SC intervention leading to PIDPIR.

Question 20: Does the Act override the Official Secrets Act?

• a) Yes, completely
• b) No
• c) Only in public interest
• d) Partially

Correct: b) No
Explanation: Disclosures prohibited under OSA are not allowed, as per criticisms.

Question 21: What is the punishment for victimization?

• a) Fine only
• b) Imprisonment up to 3 years
• c) No specific punishment
• d) Suspension

Correct: c) No specific punishment
Explanation: The Act lacks clear penalties for victimization, a major criticism.

Question 22: Which body recommended the Act?

• a) Law Commission 2001
• b) Election Commission
• c) RBI
• d) SEBI

Correct: a) Law Commission 2001
Explanation: The 142nd Report recommended a law to protect whistleblowers against corruption.

Question 23: The 2015 Amendment Bill aimed to?

• a) Strengthen protections
• b) Add more exemptions
• c) Reduce fees
• d) Cover private sector

Correct: b) Add more exemptions
Explanation: It prohibited disclosures on sovereignty, economic interests, etc., diluting the Act.

Question 24: Under which Section are rules made?

• a) Section 27
• b) Section 4
• c) Section 11
• d) Section 1

Correct: a) Section 27
Explanation: Section 27 empowers the Central Government to make rules.

Question 25: The Act has how many sections?

• a) 10
• b) 15
• c) 20
• d) 31

Correct: b) 15
Explanation: The Act comprises 15 sections covering definitions, procedures, and protections.

Question 26: Can disclosures be made to media directly?

• a) Yes
• b) No, only to Competent Authority
• c) With permission
• d) Anonymously

Correct: b) No, only to Competent Authority
Explanation: Disclosures must be made in writing to the specified authority.

Question 27: What is the time limit for inquiry?

• a) 30 days
• b) 6 months
• c) 1 year
• d) No limit

Correct: b) 6 months
Explanation: Inquiries must be completed within 6 months, extendable if necessary.

Question 28: Does the Act provide rewards?

• a) Yes, up to Rs 1 crore
• b) No
• c) Only for private sector
• d) Discretionary

Correct: b) No
Explanation: The Act focuses on protection, not rewards; rewards are under other laws like SEBI.

Question 29: Which case highlighted the need for the Act?

• a) 2G Scam
• b) Manjunath Shanmugam murder
• c) Coal Scam
• d) All of the above

Correct: d) All of the above
Explanation: Multiple murders and scams underscored the urgency for protection.

Question 30: The Act is operationalized by?

• a) Notification of rules
• b) Supreme Court order
• c) Automatic enforcement
• d) State governments

Correct: a) Notification of rules
Explanation: The Act requires rules under Section 27, which are yet to be fully notified.

Question 31: What does PIDPIR stand for?

• a) Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution
• b) Prevention of Illegal Disclosures and Protection of Informants
• c) Public Integrity Disclosure and Protection Initiative
• d) Policy for Informers Disclosure and Protection Rules

Correct: a) Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution
Explanation: It was the 2004 precursor to the Act.

Question 32: The 2015 Amendment was criticized for?

• a) Expanding coverage
• b) Diluting provisions with exemptions
• c) Adding rewards
• d) Covering private sector

Correct: b) Diluting provisions with exemptions
Explanation: It added categories like sovereignty that prohibited disclosures.

Question 33: Which Commission recommended the law?

• a) Election Commission
• b) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
• c) Finance Commission
• d) Law Commission only

Correct: b) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
Explanation: Its 2007 report urged a specific law for whistleblower protection.

Question 34: The Act aligns with which international treaty?

• a) WTO Agreement
• b) UN Convention against Corruption
• c) ICCPR
• d) CEDAW

Correct: b) UN Convention against Corruption
Explanation: UNCAC Article 33 promotes protection for reporting corruption.

Question 35: What is a major limitation of the Act?

• a) No appeals process
• b) Does not cover state government employees adequately
• c) Mandatory rewards
• d) Unlimited anonymity

Correct: b) Does not cover state government employees adequately
Explanation: Jurisdiction is mainly central; state coverage is limited.