Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
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Sunday, August 9, 2026
📝 Open Full Quiz – Public Examinations Act 2024
Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 - Quiz
Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
(As amended by Act 10 of 2026)
100 Quality MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Difficulty Levels: Low | Medium | High
Divided into 4 Sections** (25 questions each)
Section 1: Preliminary, Definitions & Scope (Questions 1–25)
1. (Low) When did the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 come into force?
a) 12 February 2024
b) 21 June 2024
c) 31 July 2026
d) 1 January 2025
Answer: b) 21 June 2024
Explanation: Section 1(2) read with Notification S.O. 2422(E) dated 21 June 2024.
2. (Low) The Act is officially known as:
a) Examination Integrity Act, 2024
b) Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
c) Anti-Cheating in Public Exams Act, 2024
d) National Testing Integrity Act, 2024
Answer: b) Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
Explanation: Section 1(1).
3. (Medium) Who is included in the definition of “candidate” under the Act?
a) Only the person appearing in the exam
b) Person granted permission to appear + authorised scribe
c) Only the scribe
d) Any person present at the exam centre
Answer: b) Person granted permission to appear + authorised scribe
Explanation: Section 2(1)(a).
4. (Medium) “Organised crime” under the Act means:
a) Any cheating by a single person
b) Unlawful activity by a person/group in collusion and conspiracy for wrongful gain
c) Only paper leakage
d) Use of mobile phone in exam
Answer: b) Unlawful activity by a person/group in collusion and conspiracy for wrongful gain
Explanation: Section 2(1)(h).
5. (Low) Which of the following is not listed in the Schedule of the Act?
a) Union Public Service Commission
b) National Testing Agency
c) State Public Service Commissions
d) Railway Recruitment Boards
Answer: c) State Public Service Commissions
Explanation: The Schedule covers only Central authorities (UPSC, SSC, RRB, IBPS, NTA, Central Ministries, etc.).
6. (High) “Service provider” under the Act includes:
a) Only the exam conducting body
b) Agency engaged by public examination authority including associates and sub-contractors
c) Only computer hardware suppliers
d) Only invigilators
Answer: b) Agency engaged by public examination authority including associates and sub-contractors
Explanation: Section 2(1)(n).
7. (Medium) “Public examination centre” includes:
a) Only the examination hall
b) Premises selected for exam + entire periphery and land appurtenant
c) Only computer centres
d) Only government schools
Answer: b) Premises selected for exam + entire periphery and land appurtenant
Explanation: Section 2(1)(m).
8. (Low) The Act was enacted in the ______ Year of the Republic of India.
a) 74th
b) 75th
c) 76th
d) 77th
Answer: b) 75th
Explanation: Preamble of the Act.
9. (High) Which of the following is excluded from the definition of “institution”?
a) Company
b) Partnership firm
c) Public examination authority itself
d) Single proprietorship firm
Answer: c) Public examination authority itself
Explanation: Section 2(1)(f) – institution is other than the public examination authority and service provider.
10. (Medium) Words and expressions not defined in this Act but defined in other laws shall have:
a) Meaning as per this Act only
b) Same meaning as assigned in those laws
c) Meaning as per dictionary
d) Meaning decided by the Court
Answer: b) Same meaning as assigned in those laws
Explanation: Section 2(2).
11. (Low) The Act aims to prevent unfair means for:
a) Only monetary gain
b) Monetary or wrongful gain
c) Only academic advantage
d) Political gain
Answer: b) Monetary or wrongful gain
Explanation: Section 3.
12. (High) “Competent authority” means:
a) District Magistrate
b) Ministry or Department of Central Government administratively concerned with the public examination authority
c) High Court
d) Police Commissioner
Answer: b) Ministry or Department of Central Government administratively concerned with the public examination authority
Explanation: Section 2(1)(c).
13. (Medium) Communication device under the Act has the same meaning as in:
a) Indian Penal Code
b) Information Technology Act, 2000
c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
d) Evidence Act
Answer: b) Information Technology Act, 2000
Explanation: Section 2(1)(b).
14. (Low) National Testing Agency is covered under the Act as per:
a) Section 3
b) The Schedule
c) Section 10
d) Section 12
Answer: b) The Schedule
Explanation: Serial No. 6 of the Schedule.
15. (High) The Act shall serve as a model draft for:
a) Only Central Government
b) States to adopt at their discretion
c) Only Union Territories
d) International bodies
Answer: b) States to adopt at their discretion
Explanation: Statement of Objects and Reasons (Para 4).
16. (Medium) “Conduct of public examination” includes:
a) Only the writing of exam
b) All procedures, processes and activities as may be prescribed
c) Only evaluation
d) Only result declaration
Answer: b) All procedures, processes and activities as may be prescribed
Explanation:Section 2(1)(e).
17. (Low) The Act received Presidential assent on:
a) 5 February 2024
b) 12 February 2024
c) 21 June 2024
d) 31 July 2026
Answer: b) 12 February 2024
Explanation: Act No. 1 of 2024, dated 12th February 2024.
18. (High) Which of the following is not a public examination authority under the Schedule?
a) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
b) Staff Selection Commission
c) State Bank of India Recruitment Board
d) Railway Recruitment Boards
Answer: c) State Bank of India Recruitment Board
Explanation: Not listed in the Schedule.
19. (Medium) Person associated with a service provider means:
a) Only permanent employees
b) Person who performs services for or on behalf of service provider (employee/agent/subsidiary)
c) Only directors
d) Only security guards
Answer: b) Person who performs services for or on behalf of service provider (employee/agent/subsidiary)
Explanation: Section 2(1)(i).
20. (Low) The long title of the Act is:
a) An Act to punish cheaters
b) An Act to prevent unfair means in the public examinations and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto
c) An Act for transparency in education
d) An Act to regulate NTA
Answer: b) An Act to prevent unfair means in the public examinations and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto
Explanation: Long Title of the Act.
21. (High) Computer network, computer resource and computer system have meanings as assigned in:
a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
b) Information Technology Act, 2000
c) Indian Evidence Act
d) Companies Act, 2013
Answer: b) Information Technology Act, 2000
Explanation: Section 2(1)(d).
22. (Medium) The Act was amended by:
a) Act 5 of 2025
b) Act 10 of 2026
c) Act 1 of 2025
d) Ordinance of 2025
Answer: b) Act 10 of 2026
Explanation: Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Act, 2026 (10 of 2026).
23. (Low) Public examination means examination conducted by:
a) Any private university
b) Public examination authority specified in the Schedule or notified by Central Government
c) Only UPSC
d) Only State Governments
Answer: b) Public examination authority specified in the Schedule or notified by Central Government
Explanation: Section 2(1)(k).
24. (High) Which of the following best describes the objective of the Act as per Statement of Objects and Reasons?
a) To increase exam fees
b) To bring greater transparency, fairness and credibility and reassure youth
c) To privatise examinations
d) To reduce number of exams
Answer: b) To bring greater transparency, fairness and credibility and reassure youth
Explanation: Statement of Objects and Reasons, Para 3.
25. (Medium) Candidate as defined in the Act shall not be liable under this Act and shall continue to be covered under:
a) Criminal Procedure Code
b) Extant administrative provisions of the concerned public examination authority
c) Only Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
d) State laws only
Answer: b) Extant administrative provisions of the concerned public examination authority
Explanation: Statement of Objects and Reasons, Para 3.
Section 2: Unfair Means & Offences (Questions 26–50)
26. (Low) Leakage of question paper or answer key is an unfair means under:
a) Section 4
b) Section 3(i)
c) Section 5
d) Section 10
Answer: b) Section 3(i)
Explanation: Explicitly listed in Section 3(i).
27. (Medium) Providing solution to questions by an unauthorised person during examination is covered under:
a) Section 3(iv)
b) Section 3(v)
c) Section 3(vi)
d) Section 5
Answer: a) Section 3(iv)
Explanation: Section 3(iv).
28. (High) Which of the following is not listed as unfair means under Section 3?
a) Creation of fake website
b) Conduct of fake examination
c) Use of calculator in exam (if allowed by rules)
d) Tampering with computer system
Answer: c) Use of calculator in exam (if allowed by rules)
Explanation: Section 3 lists specific acts for monetary/wrongful gain; permitted items are not covered.
29. (Medium) Conspiracy to facilitate unfair means is prohibited under:
a) Section 3
b) Section 4
c) Section 5
d) Section 6
Answer: b) Section 4
Explanation: Section 4 – No person or group shall collude or conspire.
30. (Low) Entering examination centre with intent to disrupt the exam by an unauthorised person is an offence under:
a) Section 3
b) Section 5(1)
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Answer: b) Section 5(1)
Explanation: Section 5(1).
31. (High) Before the time fixed for opening of question papers, an authorised person shall not:
a) Open, leak, possess, access or solve the question paper for monetary gain
b) Give confidential information related to question paper
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a and b
Explanation: Section 5(2)(a) and (b).
32. (Medium) Failure of service provider to report incidence of unfair means is an offence under:
a) Section 6
b) Section 8(2)
c) Section 7
d) Section 10
Answer: b) Section 8(2)
Explanation: Section 8(2).
33. (Low) Using premises other than the authorised examination centre without written approval is an offence under:
a) Section 5
b) Section 7
c) Section 8
d) Section 3
Answer: b) Section 7
Explanation: Section 7.
34. (High) Exception to Section 7 (change of centre without approval) is allowed in case of:
a) Administrative convenience
b) Force majeure
c) Request by candidates
d) Cost saving
Answer: b) Force majeure
Explanation: Proviso to Section 7.
35. (Medium) Threatening the life or liberty of persons associated with public examination authority is covered under:
a) Section 3(xiii)
b) Section 5
c) Section 4
d) Section 8
Answer: a) Section 3(xiii)
Explanation: Section 3(xiii).
36. (Low) Tampering with OMR response sheets is an unfair means under:
a) Section 3(vi)
b) Section 3(vii)
c) Section 3(ix)
d) Section 3(xi)
Answer: a) Section 3(vi)
Explanation Section 3(vi).
37. (High) Altering the assessment is permitted only:
a) Anytime by any person
b) To correct a bona fide error without any authority
c) With written permission of candidate
d) After result declaration
Answer: b) To correct a bona fide error without any authority
Explanation: Section 3(vii) – exception only for bona fide error.
38. (Medium) Manipulation in seating arrangements or allocation of shifts to facilitate unfair means is covered under:
a) Section 3(xii)
b) Section 3(x)
c) Section 5
d) Section 7
Answer: a) Section 3(xii)
Explanation: Section 3(xii).
39. (Low) Creation of fake website to cheat is an offence under:
a) Section 3(xiv)
b) Section 3(xv)
c) Section 4
d) Section 6
Answer: a) Section 3(xiv)
Explanation: Section 3(xiv).
40. (High) If a service provider itself resorts to unfair means, who shall report to the police?
a) Service provider itself
b) Public examination authority
c) Candidates
d) Centre Coordinator
Answer: b) Public examination authority
Explanation: Proviso to Section 6.
41. (Medium) Assisting any person unauthorisedly in the conduct of public examination by a person associated with service provider is an offence under:
a) Section 8(1)
b) Section 8(2)
c) Section 7
d) Section 5
Answer: a) Section 8(1)
Explanation: Section 8(1).
42. (Low) Willful violation of norms or standards set by Central Government for conduct of exam is covered under:
a) Section 3(viii)
b) Section 3(x)
c) Section 5
d) Section 4
Answer: a) Section 3(viii)
Explanation: Section 3(viii).
43. (High) Revealing confidential information that has come to knowledge by a person entrusted with work of public examination for undue advantage is an offence under:
a) Section 5(3)
b) Section 5(2)
c) Section 3
d) Section 8
Answer: a) Section 5(3)
Explanation: Section 5(3).
44. (Medium) Tampering with any document necessary for short-listing or finalising merit/rank is an unfair means under:
a) Section 3(ix)
b) Section 3(vi)
c) Section 3(vii)
d) Section 3(xi)
Answer: a) Section 3(ix)
Explanation: Section 3(ix).
45. (Low) Deliberate violation of security measures to facilitate unfair means is covered under:
a) Section 3(x)
b) Section 3(xi)
c) Section 5
d) Section 7
Answer: a) Section 3(x)
Explanation: Section 3(x).
46. (High) Conduct of fake examination or issuance of fake admit cards/offer letters is an offence under:
a) Section 3(xv)
b) Section 3(xiv)
c) Section 4
d) Section 8
Answer: a) Section 3(xv)
Explanation: Section 3(xv).
47. (Medium) Obstructing the conduct of a public examination is covered under:
a) Section 3(xiii)
b) Section 5(1)
c) Both a and b
d) Section 7
Answer: c) Both a and b
Explanation: Section 3(xiii) and Section 5(1).
48. (Low) Participating in collusion to effect leakage of question paper is an unfair means under:
a) Section 3(ii)
b) Section 3(i)
c) Section 4
d) Section 5
Answer: a) Section 3(ii)
Explanation: Section 3(ii).
49. (High) Accessing or taking possession of question paper or OMR sheet without authority is covered under:
a) Section 3(iii)
b) Section 3(i)
c) Section 5(2)
d) Section 7
Answer: a) Section 3(iii)
Explanation: Section 3(iii).
50. (Medium) Directly or indirectly assisting the candidate unauthorisedly is an unfair means under:
a) Section 3(v)
b) Section 3(iv)
c) Section 8
d) Section 5
Answer:a) Section 3(v)
Explanation: Section 3(v).
Section 3: Punishments & Organised Crime (Questions 51–75)
51. (Low) All offences under this Act are:
a) Bailable and compoundable
b) Cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
c) Non-cognizable
d) Compoundable with permission
Answer: b) Cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
Explanation: Section 9.
52. (Medium) After the 2026 Amendment, punishment for a person resorting to unfair means is:
a) 3–5 years + fine up to ₹10 lakh
b) Not less than 5 years but up to 10 years + fine up to ₹50 lakh
c) 1–3 years
d) Only fine
Answer: b) Not less than 5 years but up to 10 years + fine up to ₹50 lakh
Explanation: Section 10(1) as substituted by Act 10 of 2026.
53. (High) Fine for service provider after 2026 Amendment is:
a) Up to ₹1 crore
b) Up to ₹5 crore
c) Up to ₹10 crore
d) Up to ₹50 lakh
Answer: b) Up to ₹5 crore
Explanation: Section 10(2) as amended.
54. (Medium) Service provider found guilty is also barred for:
a) 4 years
b) 8 years
c) 5 years
d) Lifetime
Answer: b) 8 years
Explanation: Section 10(2) as amended by Act 10 of 2026.
55. (Low) Proportionate cost of examination shall be recovered from:
a) Only candidates
b) Guilty service provider
c) Public examination authority
d) State Government
Answer: b) Guilty service provider
Explanation: Section 10(2).
56. (High) Director/Senior Management of service provider, if offence committed with their consent/connivance, shall be punished with:
a) 3–5 years + ₹1 crore fine
b) Not less than 5 years up to 10 years + fine of ₹5 crore
c) Only fine
d) 1–3 years
Answer: b) Not less than 5 years up to 10 years + fine of ₹5 crore
Explanation: Section 10(3) as amended.
57. (Medium) Defence available to Director/Senior Management is:
a) No defence
b) Offence committed without knowledge + all due diligence exercised
c) Only good faith
d) Order of higher authority
Answer: b) Offence committed without knowledge + all due diligence exercised
Explanation: Proviso to Section 10(3) / Section 10(4).
58. (Low) Organised crime is defined under:
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 2(h)
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
Explanation: Defined in Section 2(1)(h) and punished under Section 11.
59. (High) After 2026 Amendment, punishment for organised crime is:
a) 5–10 years + minimum ₹1 crore fine
b) Not less than 7 years up to 10 years + fine not less than ₹10 crore
c) 3–5 years
d) Only fine of ₹5 crore
Answer: b) Not less than 7 years up to 10 years + fine not less than ₹10 crore
Explanation: Section 11(1) as amended by Act 10 of 2026.
60. (Medium) If an institution is involved in organised crime:
a) Only fine is imposed
b) Its property shall be subjected to attachment and forfeiture + cost recovery
c) Only imprisonment of directors
d) No special provision
Answer: b) Its property shall be subjected to attachment and forfeiture + cost recovery
Explanation: Section 11(2).
61. (Low) In case of default of payment of fine, additional imprisonment shall be imposed as per:
a) Indian Penal Code
b) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c) CrPC
d) This Act only
Answer: b) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
Explanation: Section 10(1) and 11(1).
62. (High) Until Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is brought into force, the provisions of which law shall apply?
a) Code of Criminal Procedure
b) Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
c) Evidence Act
d) IT Act
Answer: b) Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
Explanation: Proviso to Sections 10 and 11.
63. (Medium) The minimum imprisonment for ordinary unfair means after amendment is:
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation: Section 10(1) as amended.
64. (Low) Maximum fine for an individual under Section 10(1) after amendment is:
a) ₹10 lakh
b) ₹50 lakh
c) ₹1 crore
d) ₹5 crore
Answer: b) ₹50 lakh
Explanation: Section 10(1) as amended.
65. (High) Which of the following has the highest minimum imprisonment after 2026 Amendment?
a) Ordinary person under Section 10(1)
b) Director of service provider
c) Organised crime under Section 11
d) Both a and b are same
Answer: c) Organised crime under Section 11
Explanation: 7 years minimum for organised crime vs 5 years for others.
66. (Medium) Bar on service provider from being assigned responsibility is for a period of:
a) 4 years (original) / 8 years (amended)
b) 2 years
c) 10 years
d) Permanent
Answer: a) 4 years (original) / 8 years (amended)
Explanation: Section 10(2).
67. (Low) All offences under the Act are non-compoundable, meaning:
a) Can be settled between parties
b) Cannot be settled privately; trial must take place
c) Only compoundable with court permission
d) Compoundable by police
Answer: b) Cannot be settled privately; trial must take place
Explanation: Section 9.
68. (High) The 2026 Amendment increased the fine for organised crime from:
a) ₹1 crore to ₹10 crore (minimum)
b) ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh
c) ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore
d) No change
Answer: a) ₹1 crore to ₹10 crore (minimum)
Explanation:Section 11(1) substitution.
69. (Medium) Additional imprisonment for default of fine is imposed as per the provisions of:
a) This Act only
b) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
c) CrPC
d) High Court rules
Answer: b) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
Explanation: Sections 10 & 11.
70. (Low) The Act provides for recovery of:
a) Only fine
b) Proportionate cost of examination from guilty service provider/institution
c) Only legal costs
d) Compensation to candidates
Answer: b) Proportionate cost of examination from guilty service provider/institution
Explanation: Sections 10(2) and 11(2).
71. (High) Which section deals with punishment for organised crimes?
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 9
d) Section 12
Answer: b) Section 11
Explanation: Chapter III, Section 11.
72. (Medium) Original punishment (before 2026 Amendment) for ordinary offence was:
a) 3–5 years + fine up to ₹10 lakh
b) 5–10 years
c) 1–3 years
d) Only fine
Answer: a) 3–5 years + fine up to ₹10 lakh
Explanation: Original Section 10(1).
73. (Low) Cognizable offence means:
a) Police can arrest without warrant
b) Police needs warrant
c) Only court can take cognizance
d) Complaint case only
Answer: a) Police can arrest without warrant
Explanation: Section 9 + general criminal law meaning.
74. (High) Property attachment and forfeiture is provided for:
a) All offences
b) Only when institution is involved in organised crime
c) Only individuals
d) Service providers only
Answer: b) Only when institution is involved in organised crime
Explanation: Section 11(2).
75. (Medium) The 2026 Amendment came into effect from:
a) 12 February 2024
b) 21 June 2024
c) 31 July 2026
d) 1 August 2026
Answer: c) 31 July 2026
Explanation: w.e.f. 31.07.2026 as per Amendment Act.
Section 4: Investigation, Courts, Miscellaneous & Amendment (Questions 76–100)
76. (Low) Investigation under the Act shall be done by an officer not below the rank of:
a) Inspector of Police
b) Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police
c) Sub-Inspector
d) Constable
Answer: b) Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police
Explanation: Section 12(1).
77. (Medium) Central Government can refer investigation to:
a) Only State Police
b) Any Central Investigating Agency or a Special Task Force
c) Only CBI
d) Only NIA
Answer: b) Any Central Investigating Agency or a Special Task Force
Explanation: Section 12(2) as amended.
78. (High) After 2026 Amendment, investigation shall be completed within:
a) 6 months
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 1 year
Answer: b) 2 months
Explanation: Section 12A(1).
79. (Medium) Special Fast Track Courts are designated by:
a) Central Government
b) State Government / UT Administration in consultation with Chief Justice of High Court
c) Supreme Court
d) Public examination authority
Answer: b) State Government / UT Administration in consultation with Chief Justice of High Court
Explanation: Section 12A(2).
80. (Low) Trial in Special Fast Track Court shall be completed within:
a) 6 months
b) 3 months from filing of chargesheet
c) 1 year
d) No time limit
Answer: b) 3 months from filing of chargesheet
Explanation: Section 12A(4) Proviso.
81. (High) Appeal from Special Fast Track Court lies to:
a) District Court
b) High Court (bench of two Judges)
c) Supreme Court directly
d) Session Court
Answer: b) High Court (bench of two Judges)
Explanation: Section 12B(1) & (2).
82. (Medium) Appeal shall be preferred within:
a) 15 days
b) 30 days (extendable up to 90 days)
c) 60 days
d) 90 days only
Answer: b) 30 days (extendable up to 90 days)
Explanation: Section 12B(5).
83. (Low) Members, officers and employees of public examination authority are deemed to be:
a) Private persons
b) Public servants
c) Judicial officers
d) Contractual staff only
Answer: b) Public servants
Explanation: Section 13.
84. (High) Protection of action taken in good faith is available under:
a) Section 13
b) Section 14
c) Section 15
d) Section 16
Answer: b) Section 14
Explanation: Section 14.
85. (Medium) Provisions of this Act are:
a) In derogation of other laws
b) In addition to and not in derogation of any other law
c) Only overriding
d) Subordinate to State laws
Answer: b) In addition to and not in derogation of any other law
Explanation: Section 15 (with non-obstante clause).
86. (Low) Power to make rules is with:
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Public examination authority
d) High Court
Answer: b) Central Government
Explanation: Section 16(1).
87. (High) Every rule made under the Act shall be laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of:
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 60 days
d) 90 days
Answer: b) 30 days
Explanation: Section 17.
88. (Medium) Power to remove difficulties can be exercised within:
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years
Answer: c) 3 years
Explanation: Section 18(1).
89. (Low) The Act amends which Ordinance?
a) Criminal Law (Amendment) Ordinance, 1944
b) Criminal Procedure Code
c) Indian Penal Code
d) Evidence Act
Answer: a) Criminal Law (Amendment) Ordinance, 1944
Explanation: Chapter VI, Section 19.
90. (High) By the amendment in 1944 Ordinance, offence under this Act is added as serial number:
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
Answer: b) 6
Explanation: Section 19.
91. (Medium) Special Public Prosecutors for Special Fast Track Courts are appointed by:
a) Central Government
b) State Government / UT Administration
c) High Court
d) Public examination authority
Answer: b) State Government / UT Administration
Explanation: Section 12A(7).
92. (Low) Pending cases on the date of commencement of 2026 Amendment shall:
a) Continue in old courts
b) Stand transferred to Special Fast Track Court
c) Be closed
d) Be transferred to High Court
Answer: b) Stand transferred to Special Fast Track Court
Explanation: Section 12A(5).
93. (High) Trial of transferred cases shall be completed within:
a) 2 months
b) 3 months from the date of receipt
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
Answer: b) 3 months from the date of receipt
Explanation: Section 12A(6).
94. (Medium) Appeal against order of Special Fast Track Court granting or refusing bail lies to:
a) Session Court
b) High Court
c) Supreme Court
d) No appeal
Answer:b) High Court
Explanation: Section 12B(4).
95. (Low) No appeal or revision shall lie to any Court from interlocutory order of Special Fast Track Court except as provided.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
Explanation: Section 12B(3).
96. (High) The Act has effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law. This is provided in:
a) Section 14
b) Section 15 Proviso
c) Section 16
d) Section 18
Answer: b) Section 15 Proviso
Explanation: Non-obstante clause in Section 15.
97. (Medium) Public servants of public examination authority are still subject to:
a) No action
b) Administrative action as per service rules
c) Only criminal action
d) Only civil suit
Answer: b) Administrative action as per service rules
Explanation: First proviso to Section 14.
98. (Low)The Schedule is referred to in which section?
a) Section 2(k)
b) Section 3
c) Section 10
d) Section 12
Answer: a) Section 2(k)
Explanation: “[See section 2(k)]”.
99. (High) Which of the following is correct regarding Special Fast Track Court trial?
a) Proceedings shall continue on day-to-day basis
b) Adjournment beyond next day only for recorded reasons
c) Both a and b
d) No such requirement
Answer: c) Both a and b
Explanation: Section 12A(4).
100. (Medium) The Statement of Objects and Reasons was signed by:
a) Prime Minister
b) Dr. Jitendra Singh
c) Home Minister
d) Education Minister
Answer: b) Dr. Jitendra Singh
Explanation: Statement of Objects and Reasons (dated 29th January 2024).
Note:
- Questions are based on the Act as amended up to 31 July 2026.
- Low difficulty = Direct provisions
- Medium = Application + combination of sections
- High = Amendments, provisos, interlinking of sections & Statement of Objects
These 100 MCQs are fully exam-oriented and cover the entire Act comprehensively.
📝 Open Full Quiz – Public Examinations Act 2024
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