Navodaya Education Code - Practice Quiz (Chapter V-2)

Important MCQs for NVS Exams covering Reservation Rules, Appointments, Staff Strength, and Code of Conduct (Articles 37-51).

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Q1. What is the percentage of reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC) in direct recruitment in NVS?

A) 7.50%

B) 15%

C) 27%

D) 10%

Correct Answer: B) 15%
According to Article 37.1, the percentage of reservation for Scheduled Castes is 15%.

Q2. What is the percentage of reservation for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in direct recruitment?

A) 15%

B) 27%

C) 7.50%

D) 10%

Correct Answer: C) 7.50%
According to Article 37.1, the percentage of reservation for Scheduled Tribes is 7.50%.

Q3. With effect from which date did the 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBC) come into force in NVS direct recruitment?

A) 20th February 1986

B) 7th June 1991

C) 8th September 1993

D) 29th December 1999

Correct Answer: C) 8th September 1993
Article 37.1 specifies that the 27% reservation for OBC is effective from 8.9.1993.

Q4. What is the percentage of horizontal reservation provided for Ex-servicemen in Group 'C' posts under direct recruitment?

A) 1%

B) 5%

C) 7.5%

D) 10%

Correct Answer: D) 10%
Article 37.1 details a horizontal reservation of 10% for Ex-servicemen in Group 'C' posts only.

Q5. In direct recruitment to Group A, B, and C posts, what is the specific percentage of horizontal reservation reserved for individuals with Blindness or low vision?

A) 1%

B) 2%

C) 3%

D) 4%

Correct Answer: A) 1%
Article 37.1 establishes a 1% direct recruitment reservation for Blindness or low vision categories.

Q6. Under horizontal reservation for direct recruitment, what percentage is allocated for Hearing impairment?

A) 3%

B) 1.5%

C) 1%

D) 0.5%

Correct Answer: C) 1%
The table in Article 37.1 shows a 1% reservation for Hearing impairment.

Q7. Reservation in promotions is applicable in grades and services where the element of direct recruitment does not exceed what percentage?

A) 50%

B) 60%

C) 75%

D) 100%

Correct Answer: C) 75%
Article 37.2 explicitly notes that reservation is applicable for promotions in grades where direct recruitment elements do not exceed 75%.

Q8. Which statement is correct regarding reservation rules for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in NVS?

A) There is a 27% reservation for OBCs in promotions.

B) There is no reservation for OBCs in promotions.

C) OBC reservation in promotions is 15%.

D) OBC reservation applies to promotions up to Group A only.

Correct Answer: B) There is no reservation for OBCs in promotions.
Article 38.3 explicitly clarifies: "There shall be no reservation for OBCs in promotion".

Q9. Who is responsible for maintaining the register of rosters in the format prescribed by the DoPT?

A) The Principal

B) The Appointing Authority

C) The Ministry of HRD

D) The Joint Commissioner (Admn.)

Correct Answer: B) The Appointing Authority
According to Article 38.2, a register of roster shall be maintained by the appointing authority.

Q10. Under which article are the Appointing, Disciplinary, Appellate & Reviewing Authorities for various categories of employees mentioned?

A) Article 35

B) Article 37

C) Article 39

D) Article 41

Correct Answer: C) Article 39
Article 39 covers the governance of the Appointing, Disciplinary, Appellate & Reviewing Authorities based on Samiti's Notification dated March 06, 2007.

Q11. Who determines and sanctions the staff strength (Teaching & Non-Teaching) for each Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya?

A) The Executive Committee

B) The Commissioner

C) The Deputy Commissioner (Regional Officer)

D) The Chairman, NVS

Correct Answer: B) The Commissioner
Article 40 states: "The staff strength for each Vidyalaya shall be determined and sanctioned by the Commissioner..."

Q12. What travel benefits or allowances are permissible in the case of a fresh appointment to a Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya?

A) Full Travelling Allowance is paid

B) No travelling allowance or joining time is permissible

C) 5 days of joining time is given without travel allowance

D) Flat consolidated transit allowance is paid

Correct Answer: B) No travelling allowance or joining time is permissible
Article 41 specifically dictates that "No travelling allowance or joining time shall be permissible in the case of fresh appointment."

Q13. If an existing regular teacher of NVS is selected and appointed to a higher post, what joining time rules apply for preparation?

A) Restricted to 7 days

B) No joining time is permitted

C) Restricted to 2 days for preparation, plus the actual journey period

D) Exactly 5 days total including the journey period

Correct Answer: C) Restricted to 2 days for preparation, plus the actual journey period
Article 41 notes that existing teachers appointed to higher posts receive TA and joining time "restricted to two days for preparation, in addition to the actual journey period".

Q14. Before whom must the oath of allegiance/faithfulness to the Constitution of India be taken at the time of joining on first appointment?

A) District Magistrate

B) Chairman / Principal

C) Deputy Commissioner of Region

D) Only before the Executive Committee Secretary

Correct Answer: B) Chairman / Principal
Article 41.1.3 states: "Oath shall be taken before Chairman/principal at the time of joining on first appointment."

Q15. From whom are character certificates required to be produced by non-government service candidates at the time of appointment?

A) Any two relatives working in government service

B) Two Gazetted Officers of Central/State Govt. or a stipendiary magistrate

C) The Principal of the last attended school only

D) Local Police Station In-charge

Correct Answer: B) Two Gazetted Officers of Central/State Govt. or a stipendiary magistrate
Article 41.2.1 mandates character certificates from two gazetted Officers of Central/State Govt. or a stipendiary magistrate.

Q16. What consequence follows if an appointee's declaration or information is proven false or willfully suppressed?

A) Suspension for three months

B) Reduction in rank only

C) Liability to be removed from service and other necessary actions

D) Transfer to another region automatically

Correct Answer: C) Liability to be removed from service and other necessary actions
Article 41.2.4 explicitly notes that if a declaration is false or suppressed, the employee "will be liable to be removed from service...".

Q17. Under which article are the NVS "Pay Scale" provisions mentioned in the Education Code?

A) Article 38

B) Article 40

C) Article 42

D) Article 44

Correct Answer: C) Article 42
Article 42 states that the scales of pay, allowance, and benefits in addition to pay will be determined by the Samiti from time to time.

Q18. Article 43 of the NVS Education Code deals with which of the following?

A) Retention of Lien

B) Terminal Benefits

C) Leave Rules

D) Age of Retirement

Correct Answer: C) Leave Rules
Article 43 states: "Leave Rules - Leave will be admissible to employees in accordance with the provisions of the Central Civil Services".

Q19. Under what structural framework are leave guidelines granted to NVS staff?

A) State Education Leave Rules

B) Central Civil Services Leave Rules

C) NVS Private Autonomous Guidelines

D) Ministry of HRD Special Code Only

Correct Answer: B) Central Civil Services Leave Rules
Article 43 transitions directly into referencing the Central Civil Services structural regulations for leave.

Q20. What is covered under Article 44 and Article 45 of Chapter V?

A) Retention of Lien & Terminal Benefits

B) Promotions & Method of selection

C) Code of Conduct for Teachers

D) Disciplinary Proceedings on Students

Correct Answer: A) Retention of Lien & Terminal Benefits
The contents of Page 73 highlight Article 44 as "Retention of Lien" and Article 45 as "Terminal Benefits".

Q21. Article 46 of the Education Code outlines what parameter?

A) Age of Retirement

B) Re-employment norms

C) Method of Promotion

D) Direct Recruitment criteria

Correct Answer: A) Age of Retirement
Page 74 outlines Article 46 explicitly as the "Age of Retirement".

Q22. Article 47 mentions re-employment rules for superannuation. Which two categories are separate under this article?

A) Group 'A' and Group 'B' officers

B) Teachers and Non-teaching staff retiring on superannuation

C) Core academic staff and Deputationists

D) Headquarters officials and Regional officials

Correct Answer: B) Teachers and Non-teaching staff retiring on superannuation
Article 47 defines separate subclauses: 47.1 for Teachers Retiring on Superannuation and 47.2 for Non-teaching Retiring on Superannuation.

Q23. Which article regulates the overall policies and guidelines for "Promotions" within NVS?

A) Article 45

B) Article 48

C) Article 50

D) Article 52

Correct Answer: B) Article 48
Article 48 governs Promotions as highlighted on Page 75 of the manual.

Q24. According to Article 48.3, what are the two methodologies explicitly classified under the method of promotion?

A) Direct interview and Written exam

B) Selection Method and Non-selection Method

C) Merit-based and Seniority-neutral

D) State-pool and Central-pool promotions

Correct Answer: B) Selection Method and Non-selection Method
Articles 48.3.1 and 48.3.2 separate promotions into "Selection Method" and "Non-selection Method".

Q25. Where are specific provisions and considerations for SC/ST Officers outlined under the promotion terms?

A) Article 48.4

B) Article 35

C) Article 51

D) Article 49

Correct Answer: A) Article 48.4
Article 48.4 specifically handles the "Provisions for SC/ST Officers" during promotional procedures.

Q26. What guidelines are applied when a DPC (Departmental Promotion Committee) does not meet for a number of years due to unavoidable reasons?

A) All promotions are cancelled indefinitely

B) Handled according to procedures mentioned in Article 48.5

C) Automatic mass promotion takes place without assessment

D) The Ministry takes full direct legislative authority over vacancies

Correct Answer: B) Handled according to procedures mentioned in Article 48.5
Article 48.5 states specific operational actions when DPC meetings are stalled for years.

Q27. Article 49 of the NVS Education Code is designated for which of the following terms?

A) Code of Conduct

B) Jurisdiction of Court Cases

C) Foreign Service Terms

D) Disciplinary Actions

Correct Answer: C) Foreign Service Terms
Page 79 documents Article 49 explicitly as "Foreign Service Terms".

Q28. What does Article 50 of Chapter V represent in the NVS Education Code?

A) Foreign Service Terms

B) Code of Conduct for Teachers

C) Jurisdiction

D) Medical Facilities

Correct Answer: C) Jurisdiction
Page 79 lists Article 50 under the title "Jurisdiction".

Q29. Chapter VI begins on Page 80 of the Education Code. What is the title of this chapter?

A) Discipline

B) Admission Guidelines

C) Code of Conduct

D) Scheme of Studies

Correct Answer: C) Code of Conduct
Page 80 clearly transitions to Chapter VI under the explicit title "CODE OF CONDUCT".

Q30. Under Chapter VI, which specific article covers the Code of Conduct explicitly "For Teachers"?

A) Article 48

B) Article 50

C) Article 51

D) Article 53

Correct Answer: C) Article 51
Article 51 is titled "For Teachers" under the Code of Conduct section starting on page 80.

Q31. Which of the following is considered a core reason why direct recruitment is conducted centrally by NVS Headquarters?

A) To bypass local employment exchanges entirely without reason

B) To ensure standard merit criteria based on all-India advertisements

C) Because regional offices do not have administrative powers over any staff

D) Because the District Magistrate requests direct central allocation

Correct Answer: B) To ensure standard merit criteria based on all-India advertisements
Article 35 mentions central recruitment is handled on the basis of an all-India advertisement following standard Recruitment Rules.

Q32. How are the daily wage workers paid under the direct recruitment structural exceptions noted in Article 35?

A) Minimum wages notified by State Govt. or Central Govt./Administration, whichever is higher

B) Exactly half the pay of a regular Group 'D' entry scale

C) Fixed nominal pay completely decided by the Principal alone

D) On an hourly rate defined by the Purchase Advisory Sub-Committee

Correct Answer: A) Minimum wages notified by State Govt. or Central Govt./Administration, whichever is higher
Article 35 explicitly states: "...paid minimum wages notified by the State Govt. /Central Govt. / Administration, as per the Minimum Wages Act, whichever is higher."

Q33. Who has the authority to order an individual relaxation of the normal procedure of recruitment through the Employment Exchange in deserving cases?

A) The Principal

B) The Chairman of VMC

C) The Commissioner

D) The Joint Commissioner (Pers.)

Correct Answer: C) The Commissioner
Article 35.4 text reads: "The Commissioner may, in deserving cases, pass orders individually, relaxing the normal procedure of recruitment through the Employment Exchange."

Q34. In the event of an appointment on compassionate grounds, which of the following documents is mandatory as per Article 35.4?

A) Character reference from three local political heads

B) Marks sheets, pass certificates, and death certificate of the deceased

C) Bank loan statement documents

D) Experience certificate from private sector

Correct Answer: B) Marks sheets, pass certificates, and death certificate of the deceased
Article 35.4 dictates applications for compassionate grounds must be accompanied by marks sheets, pass certificates, etc., and death certificate of the deceased.

Q35. What certificates must be produced at the time of appointment to verify age, as per Article 41.2?

A) Marriage declaration registration papers

B) Certificate of age

C) Fitness declaration statement from local clinic

D) Roster alignment index verification slip

Correct Answer: B) Certificate of age
Article 41.2.3 lists "Certificate of age" as one of the fundamental original parameters required upon selection.

Chapter V: Classification, Recruitment, Terms & Conditions of Service

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti Rules — Interactive Learning Practice Test

Q1. Which Chapter of the rules covers Classification, Recruitment, Terms & Conditions of Service in NVS?

• A) Chapter III
• B) Chapter IV
• C) Chapter V
• D) Chapter VI

Correct Answer: C) Chapter V

Based on the chapter header title provided in the text.

Q2. Matters regarding classification of posts, appointment, confirmation, promotion, and seniority in NVS are governed by which rules?

• A) NVS Recruitment Rules
• B) Central Civil Services Rules
• C) Ministry of Education Guidelines
• D) State Government Recruitment Codes

Correct Answer: A) NVS Recruitment Rules

The text states these matters shall be as per the NVS Recruitment Rules.

Q3. When were the initial NVS Recruitment Rules notified?

• A) 22nd June, 1995
• B) 7th June, 1991
• C) 29th December, 1999
• D) 14th November, 2018

Correct Answer: B) 7th June, 1991

The rules were first notified on 7th June, 1991.

Q4. Which of the following dates marks a notification of NVS Recruitment Rules or its modification?

• A) 15th August, 1947
• B) 26th January, 1950
• C) 22nd June, 1995
• D) 10th October, 2005

Correct Answer: C) 22nd June, 1995

The text explicitly lists 22nd June, 1995 as one of the notification dates.

Q5. The NVS Recruitment Rules were modified vide a notification dated which day in December 1999?

• A) 1st December
• B) 15th December
• C) 29th December
• D) 31st December

Correct Answer: C) 29th December

The text highlights a modification vide notification dated 29th December, 1999.

Q6. Which amendment or modification date occurred in the year 2007?

• A) 16th July
• B) 15th August
• C) 12th April
• D) 30th September

Correct Answer: A) 16th July

The text refers to a notification/modification dated 16th July, 2007.

Q7. What is the latest specific notification year cited for the Recruitment Rules in the text?

• A) 1991
• B) 1999
• C) 2007
• D) 2018

Correct Answer: D) 2018

The text lists 14th November 2018 as the latest year variation given.

Q8. Which specific date in November 2018 marks an NVS notification?

• A) 1st November
• B) 14th November
• C) 20th November
• D) 28th November

Correct Answer: B) 14th November

The text notes the notification date as 14th November 2018.

Q9. Besides explicit notifications, what else can guide classification, promotions, and seniority from time to time?

• A) Judicial decisions of local courts
• B) Administrative instructions issued by the Samiti
• C) State Government orders
• D) Employee Union resolutions

Correct Answer: B) Administrative instructions issued by the Samiti

The text states: "...and any other notification/administrative instructions issued by the Samiti from time to time."

Q10. Which Appendix contains the relevant NVS Recruitment Rules referenced in Chapter V?

• A) Appendix-I
• B) Appendix-III
• C) Appendix-V
• D) Appendix-X

Correct Answer: C) Appendix-V

The text includes "(Appendix-V)" at the end of the first paragraph.

Q11. Which Article details the "Procedure for Direct Recruitment"?

• A) Article 30
• B) Article 35
• C) Article 40
• D) Article 45

Correct Answer: B) Article 35

Article 35 is explicitly titled "Procedure for Direct Recruitment".

Q12. Direct recruitment to which of the following individual administrative posts is centrally handled under Article 35?

• A) Principal
• B) Car Driver
• C) Sub Staff
• D) Casual Daily Wager

Correct Answer: A) Principal

The text explicitly references the post of "Principal" alongside teaching/non-teaching staff.

Q13. Direct recruitment for Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas is carried out by which NVS authority level?

• A) Regional Offices
• B) Respective School Management Committees
• C) Headquarters centrally
• D) District Collectors

Correct Answer: C) Headquarters centrally

The text explicitly states recruitment "...shall be made centrally by the Headquarters".

Q14. Which of the following staff is EXCEPTED from central recruitment under Article 35?

• A) TGT Teachers
• B) PGT Teachers
• C) Sub Staff and Car Driver
• D) School Principals

Correct Answer: C) Sub Staff and Car Driver

The text says: "...except the posts of Sub Staff and car Driver...".

Q15. When necessary, central recruitment is to be initiated on the basis of what?

• A) Local verbal notice
• B) An all India advertisement
• C) Regional internal transfers only
• D) Employment exchange lists exclusively

Correct Answer: B) An all India advertisement

The text says: "...on the basis of an all India advertisement".

Q16. Under what conditions should Sub Staff on daily wages be engaged?

• A) Regular permanent assignments
• B) Year-round administrative operations
• C) Work of casual, seasonal, or intermittent nature
• D) Full-time statutory assignments

Correct Answer: C) Work of casual, seasonal, or intermittent nature

The text states daily wage staff are for "work which is of casual or seasonal or intermittent nature".

Q17. Daily wage staff cannot be engaged for which type of work?

• A) Full-time nature work
• B) Intermittent work
• C) Short-term assignments
• D) Seasonal work

Correct Answer: A) Full-time nature work

The text explicitly states they are engaged "...for work which is not of fulltime nature."

Q18. Daily wage workers must be paid wages in accordance with which Act?

• A) Payment of Wages Act
• B) Minimum Wages Act
• C) Equal Remuneration Act
• D) NVS Compensation Act

Correct Answer: B) Minimum Wages Act

The text explicitly states: "...as per the Minimum Wages Act".

Q19. If the minimum wage rate differs between State Government and Central Government guidelines, which one should be paid?

• A) State Government rate always
• B) Central Government rate always
• C) Whichever rate is higher
• D) An average of both rates

Correct Answer: C) Whichever rate is higher

The text outlines: "...notified by the State Govt. /Central Govt. / Administration, as per the Minimum Wages Act, whichever is higher."

Q20. What is the prescribed duration guideline for engaging daily wage workers?

• A) Long term period
• B) Short term period
• C) Permanent probationary period
• D) Indefinite structural duration

Correct Answer: B) Short term period

The text explicitly says: "Such workers to be engaged for short term period."

Q21. Under section 35.1, exceptions to the normal recruitment procedure can be considered in how many specified case categories?

• A) Only 1
• B) In specific cases listed under subsequent clauses (like 35.2 and 35.3)
• C) All non-teaching cases automatically
• D) None; no exceptions are allowed

Correct Answer: B) In specific cases listed under subsequent clauses

Clauses 35.2 and 35.3 break down the specific exceptional conditions allowed.

Q22. Clause 35.2 permits special appointment proposals for near relatives of employees under what specific condition?

• A) When the employee goes on voluntary retirement
• B) When the employee dies in harness
• C) When the employee gets a promotion
• D) When the employee achieves 25 years of service

Correct Answer: B) When the employee dies in harness

Clause 35.2 explicitly deals with an "employee who dies in harness".

Q23. What financial/living circumstance must the family be left in to qualify for an exception under 35.2?

• A) Highly affluent circumstances
• B) Indigent circumstances
• C) Normal stable circumstances
• D) Foreign residential status

Correct Answer: B) Indigent circumstances

The text states: "...leaving his family in indigent circumstances".

Q24. Which of the following relatives is explicitly mentioned as eligible under Clause 35.2?

• A) Son / daughter
• B) Cousin / uncle
• C) Grandfather
• D) Friend of the family

Correct Answer: A) Son / daughter

The phrase reads: "...appointment of a son/ daughter or other near relative..."

Q25. Clause 35.3 addresses proposals for appointment of persons who ceased to be in service due to a failure to do what?

• A) Pay their security bond
• B) Resume duty after expiry of maximum extra-ordinary leave
• C) Submit their annual appraisal
• D) Clear the probationary exam

Correct Answer: B) Resume duty after expiry of maximum extra-ordinary leave

The text specifies: "...failed to resume duty after the expiry of the maximum period of extra-ordinary leave".

Q26. To qualify under 35.3, the failure to resume duty must be due to reasons that were:

• A) Intentional and fully planned
• B) Beyond their control
• C) Within their immediate personal management
• D) Approved by a local trade union

Correct Answer: B) Beyond their control

The text directly uses the qualifier: "...for reasons beyond their control".

Q27. What was the employment status of the individuals mentioned in Clause 35.3 before they ceased service?

• A) Permanent employees
• B) Temporary employees
• C) Tenured Directors
• D) Contractual consultants

Correct Answer: B) Temporary employees

The end of clause 35.3 designates them as "...temporary employees."

Q28. Clause 35.4 states that proposals for relaxation of normal recruitment procedures through which agency must be made with full justification?

• A) Staff Selection Commission
• B) Banking Personnel Selection
• C) Employment Exchange
• D) Central Vigilance Commission

Correct Answer: C) Employment Exchange

The text states: "...relaxation of the normal procedure of recruitment through the Employment Exchange".

Q29. Which official has the power to pass orders individually relaxing the normal procedure of recruitment through the Employment Exchange?

• A) School Principal
• B) Regional Deputy Director
• C) The Commissioner
• D) State Education Minister

Correct Answer: C) The Commissioner

The text states: "The Commissioner may, in deserving cases, pass orders individually..."

Q30. In what type of cases may the Commissioner individually pass relaxation orders?

• A) In deserving cases
• B) In all casual applications automatically
• C) Only when directed by a tribunal
• D) Only during summer vacations

Correct Answer: A) In deserving cases

The text specifically uses the phrase "...in deserving cases".

Q31. Applications for appointment on compassionate grounds must be submitted in which form?

• A) Any blank piece of paper
• B) A format prescribed by the State Government
• C) The prescribed form as devised by Samiti
• D) Standard union registration format

Correct Answer: C) The prescribed form as devised by Samiti

The text demands applications be "submitted in the prescribed form as devised by Samiti".

Q32. Which of the following documents is explicitly required to accompany a compassionate ground application?

• A) Marks sheets and pass certificates
• B) Bank statements of past 3 years
• C) Property registration deeds
• D) Employee character logbook copy

Correct Answer: A) Marks sheets and pass certificates

The text states the application should be "accompanied by marks sheets, pass certificates, etc."

Q33. What specific certificate belonging to the deceased employee is mandatory for compassionate ground appointments?

• A) Birth certificate
• B) Medical fitness certificate
• C) Death certificate
• D) Retirement certificate

Correct Answer: C) Death certificate

The text concludes with the requirement: "...and death certificate of the deceased."

Q34. Who specifies the layout and procedure for engaging daily wage workers over time?

• A) The Samiti from time to time
• B) Individual School Clerks
• C) Local Employment Exchanges
• D) The Regional Trade Unions

Correct Answer: A) The Samiti from time to time

The text states: "...engaged through laid down procedure as prescribed by Samiti from time to time."

Q35. True or False: Proposals for relaxing recruitment rules through Employment Exchanges require full justification.

• A) True
• B) False
• C) Partially True (only for teaching staff)
• D) Out of scope of the text

Correct Answer: A) True

Clause 35.4 explicitly states that proposals "...shall be made to the Samiti giving full justification."